Audit Evidence MCQs 2026

20 questions with detailed answers · 6 from past papers · 2 quiz batches available

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Page 1 of 1 Questions 110 of 20
  1. Q1 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Observation in the context of Audit Evidence refers to

    1. A only reading email headers
    2. B only phone directory review
    3. C only logo inspection
    4. D watching client perform process or control
    💡 Explanation:

    Observation provides evidence but limited to point in time.

  2. Q2 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Which statement about External confirmation is correct

    1. A client prepared summary only
    2. B photocopy without send
    3. C direct written response from third party to auditor
    4. D verbal phone call without documentation
    💡 Explanation:

    Bank debtor and lawyer confirmations are standard.

  3. Q3 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Physical examination is best described as

    1. A direct verification of tangible assets
    2. B only ledger balance review for inventory
    3. C only inquiry about cash
    4. D only confirmation for fixed assets without sight
    💡 Explanation:

    Count and inspect for existence of assets.

  4. Q4 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Which statement about Going concern evidence is correct

    1. A assume perpetual life without analysis
    2. B evaluating whether entity can continue operating for foreseeable future
    3. C ignore cash flow projections
    4. D no post balance sheet review
    💡 Explanation:

    Going concern assessment uses multiple evidence sources.

  5. Q5 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    A key aspect of Sufficient audit evidence is that it involves

    1. A single inquiry always enough
    2. B no documentation needed
    3. C enough quantity of evidence to support opinion
    4. D client oral promise only
    💡 Explanation:

    Sufficiency relates to quantity and risk.

  6. Q6 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Regarding Reliability of evidence in Audit Evidence, the accurate view is

    1. A only management oral representation alone
    2. B increases when obtained from independent external sources
    3. C internal memo without support
    4. D unsigned handwritten note only
    💡 Explanation:

    External independent evidence is more reliable.

  7. Q7 easy

    Audit Evidence: Analytical procedures can be defined as

    1. A random guessing of balances
    2. B only counting paperclips
    3. C only reading mission statement
    4. D evaluation of financial information through analysis of plausible relationships
    💡 Explanation:

    Analytics include ratio and trend analysis.

  8. Q8 easy

    Regarding Inquiry in Audit Evidence, the accurate view is

    1. A seeking information from knowledgeable persons
    2. B only evidence without corroboration always
    3. C ignore responses contradicting evidence
    4. D never document inquiry
    💡 Explanation:

    Inquiry must be corroborated for significant matters.

  9. Q9 medium

    Vouching in the context of Audit Evidence refers to

    1. A only tracing from journal to ledger without docs
    2. B only analytical review
    3. C only inquiry of intern
    4. D examining supporting documents for recorded transactions
    💡 Explanation:

    Vouching tests occurrence and accuracy.

  10. Q10 medium

    Which statement about Tracing is correct

    1. A only backward from ledger
    2. B only reading footnotes
    3. C following source documents forward into records
    4. D only comparing to budget without source
    💡 Explanation:

    Tracing supports completeness assertion.

  11. Q11 medium

    Cut-off testing is best described as

    1. A ignore year-end shipments
    2. B accept all December entries in January
    3. C procedures ensuring transactions recorded in correct period
    4. D no receiving report review
    💡 Explanation:

    Cut-off prevents timing misstatements.

  12. Q12 medium

    A key aspect of Evidence hierarchy is that it involves

    1. A oral management claim strongest always
    2. B internal memo beats bank statement
    3. C unsigned list beats confirmation
    4. D external direct and documentary evidence generally more reliable
    💡 Explanation:

    Auditor evaluates relative reliability.

  13. Q13 easy

    Audit Evidence: Audit file documentation of evidence can be defined as

    1. A no record of tests
    2. B destroy all notes after fieldwork
    3. C record procedures performed evidence obtained and conclusions
    4. D client keeps all audit papers
    💡 Explanation:

    Documentation supports review and quality control.

  14. Q14 easy

    Regarding Appropriate audit evidence in Audit Evidence, the accurate view is

    1. A evidence that is relevant and reliable for assertion tested
    2. B irrelevant newspaper clipping
    3. C rumour from anonymous source
    4. D dated marketing brochure only
    💡 Explanation:

    Appropriateness is quality of evidence.

  15. Q15 easy

    Which statement about Inspection of documents is correct

    1. A only listening to music
    2. B only observing weather
    3. C only tasting food samples
    4. D examining records whether internal or external
    💡 Explanation:

    Inspection is common evidence procedure.

  16. Q16 easy

    A key aspect of Recalculation is that it involves

    1. A accepting totals without check
    2. B only spell-checking narrative
    3. C only colour review of charts
    4. D checking mathematical accuracy of documents or records
    💡 Explanation:

    Recalculation verifies arithmetic.

  17. Q17 medium

    Audit Evidence: Reperformance can be defined as

    1. A trust client spreadsheet without test
    2. B only read policy
    3. C auditor independently executes procedures originally done by client
    4. D only interview receptionist
    💡 Explanation:

    Reperformance confirms process accuracy.

  18. Q18 hard

    Negative confirmation in the context of Audit Evidence refers to

    1. A recipient asked to respond only if disagreement
    2. B always preferred for high risk balances
    3. C used when individual amounts are large and disputed
    4. D mandatory for all bank accounts
    💡 Explanation:

    Negative confirmations used when low risk and many small balances.

  19. Q19 medium

    Which statement about Positive confirmation is correct

    1. A no response required
    2. B only for trivial items always
    3. C recipient asked to confirm whether agree or disagree
    4. D never used for receivables
    💡 Explanation:

    Positive confirmation requests explicit agreement.

  20. Q20 hard

    Related party transaction evidence is best described as

    1. A ignore related party note
    2. B accept management denial without search
    3. C no disclosure review
    4. D additional scrutiny due to non-arm length risk
    💡 Explanation:

    Related parties require identification and disclosure.