Sanitary and Waste Water Engineering MCQs 2026

69 questions with detailed answers · 34 from past papers · 7 quiz batches available

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Page 1 of 1 Questions 110 of 69
  1. Q1 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Infiltration in sewer systems refers to

    1. A Sewage leaking to groundwater as standard term
    2. B Rain falling on manholes only
    3. C Industrial discharge
    4. D Groundwater entering sewer pipes
    💡 Explanation:

    Infiltration increases flow during wet weather stressing treatment plants

  2. Q2 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Industrial wastewater with heavy metals needs

    1. A Direct discharge to oxidation pond only
    2. B No treatment in Pakistan
    3. C Pretreatment before biological treatment
    4. D Only dilution with storm water
    💡 Explanation:

    Toxic metals inhibit biological processes and need source control

  3. Q3 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Exfiltration from sewers causes

    1. A Groundwater and soil contamination
    2. B Reduced treatment cost
    3. C Improved pipe strength
    4. D Higher BOD removal in plant
    💡 Explanation:

    Leaking sewage contaminates surrounding soil and groundwater

  4. Q4 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    I/I stands for in sewerage engineering

    1. A Influent and Inhibition
    2. B Internal and Intermittent
    3. C Inorganic and Industrial
    4. D Infiltration and Inflow
    💡 Explanation:

    I/I adds extraneous water to sanitary sewers

  5. Q5 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Self cleansing velocity in sewers prevents

    1. A Pipe corrosion only
    2. B Sediment deposition in pipes
    3. C Biological treatment failure
    4. D Grit chamber overflow
    💡 Explanation:

    Minimum velocity keeps solids in suspension per sewer design codes

  6. Q6 easy

    Manning formula is used in sewer design to relate

    1. A BOD and COD
    2. B Sludge age and F/M
    3. C Flow velocity and pipe slope
    4. D Nitrification rate
    💡 Explanation:

    Manning equation calculates flow in open channels and partially full pipes

  7. Q7 medium

    Peak factor in sewage flow accounts for

    1. A Diurnal and seasonal variation
    2. B Only pipe material
    3. C Only manhole spacing
    4. D Only sludge density
    💡 Explanation:

    Peak flow design ensures conveyance at maximum expected flow

  8. Q8 easy

    Separate sewer system has

    1. A Single pipe for all flows always
    2. B Distinct sanitary and storm sewers
    3. C No storm drainage
    4. D No sanitary lines
    💡 Explanation:

    Separate systems reduce treatment plant overload during rains

  9. Q9 medium

    Sewer pipe minimum slope is governed by

    1. A Only pavement CBR
    2. B Only wind speed
    3. C Only earthquake zone
    4. D Diameter and self cleansing velocity
    💡 Explanation:

    Smaller pipes need steeper slopes to maintain self cleansing

  10. Q10 medium

    Hazen-Williams formula is also used for

    1. A Water and sewage pressure pipe flow
    2. B Sludge digestion rate
    3. C BOD kinetics only
    4. D Wind rose analysis
    💡 Explanation:

    HW equation estimates head loss in pressurized sewer force mains

  11. Q11 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Force main is required when

    1. A Sewer is always gravity
    2. B No pumping ever needed
    3. C Gravity flow is not feasible
    4. D Treatment plant is uphill without lift
    💡 Explanation:

    Pumping lifts sewage where topography prevents gravity conveyance

  12. Q12 medium

    Centrifuge dewatering uses

    1. A Biological nitrification
    2. B Trickling filter recirculation
    3. C Sedimentation in oxidation pond only
    4. D High rotational speed to separate solids
    💡 Explanation:

    Centrifugal force drives liquid-solid separation

  13. Q13 medium

    Composting of sludge requires

    1. A Adequate carbon-nitrogen balance and aeration
    2. B Complete anaerobic sealed conditions always
    3. C Zero moisture
    4. D Sub-zero temperature
    💡 Explanation:

    Composting stabilizes biosolids for agricultural use where permitted

  14. Q14 medium

    Belt filter press is used for

    1. A Aeration of mixed liquor
    2. B Mechanical sludge dewatering
    3. C Grit washing
    4. D Influent screening
    💡 Explanation:

    Belt presses squeeze water from conditioned sludge

  15. Q15 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Drying beds for sludge dewatering depend on

    1. A Evaporation and drainage
    2. B Reverse osmosis
    3. C Centrifugal pumps only
    4. D Activated carbon adsorption
    💡 Explanation:

    Sludge is spread on sand beds for dewatering by sun and gravity

  16. Q16 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Typical MLSS concentration in conventional activated sludge is

    1. A 50 to 100 mg/L
    2. B 2000 to 4000 mg/L
    3. C 10000 to 15000 mg/L
    4. D 100 to 200 mg/L
    💡 Explanation:

    Mixed liquor suspended solids in conventional plants range 2000-4000 mg/L

  17. Q17 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    F/M ratio in activated sludge stands for

    1. A Flow to Mass ratio
    2. B Filament to Mixed liquor ratio
    3. C Food to Microorganism ratio
    4. D Final to Initial BOD ratio
    💡 Explanation:

    F/M relates organic loading to biomass concentration in aeration tank

  18. Q18 easy

    Activated sludge process relies primarily on

    1. A Anaerobic bacteria in septic tank
    2. B Physical filtration only
    3. C Chemical precipitation alone
    4. D Aerobic microorganisms in mixed liquor
    💡 Explanation:

    Activated sludge uses aeration to grow aerobic biomass that oxidizes organic matter

  19. Q19 medium

    Mean cell residence time in activated sludge is controlled by

    1. A Sludge wasting rate
    2. B Primary clarifier depth
    3. C Grit chamber velocity
    4. D Trickling filter media size
    💡 Explanation:

    Wasting controls SRT/MCRT which affects sludge age and effluent quality

  20. Q20 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Standard BOD test incubation period at 20°C is

    1. A 3 days
    2. B 5 days
    3. C 7 days
    4. D 10 days
    💡 Explanation:

    BOD5 is measured over 5 days at 20°C as per standard methods used in Pakistan water quality labs

  21. Q21 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Typical BOD/COD ratio for untreated domestic sewage is approximately

    1. A 0.4 to 0.6
    2. B 0.9 to 1.0
    3. C 0.1 to 0.2
    4. D 0.8 to 0.9
    💡 Explanation:

    Domestic sewage is biodegradable; BOD is usually 40-60% of COD before treatment

  22. Q22 easy

    Equalization tank purpose is

    1. A Remove all BOD
    2. B Dampen flow and load variations
    3. C Provide final disinfection
    4. D Replace secondary clarifier
    💡 Explanation:

    Equalization balances diurnal industrial discharge peaks

  23. Q23 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Grease trap is installed to

    1. A Increase BOD loading
    2. B Provide nitrification
    3. C Measure COD
    4. D Remove fats oils and grease from kitchen waste
    💡 Explanation:

    FOG causes sewer blockages and interferes with treatment

  24. Q24 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Grit chamber removes

    1. A Dissolved ammonia
    2. B All organic matter
    3. C Inorganic settleable particles like sand
    4. D Biogas methane
    💡 Explanation:

    Grit protects pumps and prevents abrasion in treatment units

  25. Q25 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Horizontal flow grit chamber design uses

    1. A Controlled velocity near 0.3 m/s
    2. B Velocity 5 m/s
    3. C Zero velocity always
    4. D Velocity 10 m/s
    💡 Explanation:

    At about 0.3 m/s organic matter stays suspended while grit settles

  26. Q26 medium

    Aerated grit chamber uses

    1. A Chlorine gas
    2. B Diffused air to separate organic matter from grit
    3. C Membrane filtration
    4. D Trickling filter media
    💡 Explanation:

    Air roll keeps organics suspended while grit settles

  27. Q27 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Bar screen with 25 mm spacing is classified as

    1. A Fine screen
    2. B Micro screen
    3. C Coarse screen
    4. D Membrane screen
    💡 Explanation:

    Coarse screens remove large debris before pumps

  28. Q28 easy

    Comminutors are used to

    1. A Digest sludge anaerobically
    2. B Shred coarse solids in sewage
    3. C Measure BOD
    4. D Remove nitrogen
    💡 Explanation:

    Comminutors reduce size of rags and debris

  29. Q29 easy

    Wet well in pumping station collects

    1. A Treated effluent only
    2. B Sewage before pumps activate
    3. C Drinking water
    4. D Sludge cake
    💡 Explanation:

    Wet wells store influent for submersible or dry well pumps

  30. Q30 medium

    Dechlorination may be needed to

    1. A Increase COD
    2. B Promote algae in aeration tank
    3. C Remove grit
    4. D Reduce chlorine toxicity to aquatic life
    💡 Explanation:

    Sulfur dioxide or bisulfite neutralizes residual chlorine in effluent

  31. Q31 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Chlorination of treated effluent purpose is

    1. A Pathogen disinfection
    2. B Increase BOD
    3. C Promote nitrification
    4. D Remove grit
    💡 Explanation:

    Chlorine kills bacteria before discharge or reuse

  32. Q32 easy

    Return activated sludge is recycled to

    1. A Final effluent outlet
    2. B Sludge drying beds only
    3. C Primary clarifier underflow exclusively
    4. D Aeration tank inlet
    💡 Explanation:

    RAS maintains biomass inventory in aeration tank

  33. Q33 medium

    Extended aeration activated sludge typically operates at

    1. A High F/M and short SRT
    2. B Low F/M and long SRT
    3. C Zero dissolved oxygen
    4. D No sludge return
    💡 Explanation:

    Extended aeration has low loading and long sludge age for stable operation

  34. Q34 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Trickling filter media commonly used in Pakistan is

    1. A Sand only
    2. B Steel plates
    3. C Rock or plastic media
    4. D Concrete blocks without voids
    💡 Explanation:

    High surface area media supports biofilm growth in trickling filters

  35. Q35 medium

    Hydraulic loading on trickling filter is expressed as

    1. A m³/m²/day
    2. B kg BOD/ha/day
    3. C m/s Manning velocity
    4. D kN/m² contact pressure
    💡 Explanation:

    Hydraulic loading rate is flow per unit plan area of filter

  36. Q36 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Organic loading on trickling filter is expressed as

    1. A m³/m²/day
    2. B mg/L MLSS
    3. C kPa head loss
    4. D kg BOD/m³/day
    💡 Explanation:

    Organic loading relates BOD applied per unit media volume

  37. Q37 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Anaerobic digestion produces biogas rich in

    1. A Oxygen
    2. B Chlorine
    3. C Methane
    4. D Nitrogen gas only
    💡 Explanation:

    Methanogenic bacteria convert organics to CH4 and CO2 in anaerobic digesters

  38. Q38 medium

    Optimum temperature range for mesophilic anaerobic digestion is

    1. A 30 to 38°C
    2. B 5 to 10°C
    3. C 55 to 65°C
    4. D 80 to 90°C
    💡 Explanation:

    Mesophilic digesters operate around 35°C commonly in Pakistan WWTPs

  39. Q39 hard

    Two-stage anaerobic digestion separates

    1. A Primary and secondary settling
    2. B Acid formation and methane formation
    3. C Nitrification and denitrification
    4. D Screening and grit removal
    💡 Explanation:

    Acidogens and methanogens have different optimal conditions

  40. Q40 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    UASB reactor is primarily used for

    1. A Disinfection with chlorine
    2. B Grit removal
    3. C Anaerobic treatment of high-strength wastewater
    4. D Storm water detention
    💡 Explanation:

    Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket treats industrial and high-strength organic waste

  41. Q41 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Septic tank provides

    1. A Primary sedimentation and anaerobic digestion
    2. B Complete nitrification
    3. C Reverse osmosis
    4. D Activated sludge aeration
    💡 Explanation:

    Septic tanks settle solids and partial anaerobic decomposition in rural Pakistan

  42. Q42 easy

    Typical detention time in septic tank is

    1. A 5 minutes
    2. B 7 days minimum
    3. C 30 days
    4. D 24 to 48 hours
    💡 Explanation:

    HRT allows settling and partial digestion of domestic waste

  43. Q43 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Imhoff tank combines

    1. A Aeration and chlorination
    2. B Sedimentation and sludge digestion
    3. C Filtration and UV
    4. D Flocculation and adsorption
    💡 Explanation:

    Imhoff cone separates digestion from supernatant in single unit

  44. Q44 easy

    Oxidation pond treatment depends on

    1. A High pressure pumps only
    2. B Anaerobic methanogenesis only
    3. C Algae-bacteria symbiosis and sunlight
    4. D Membrane filtration
    💡 Explanation:

    Facultative ponds use natural oxygen from algae for aerobic bacteria

  45. Q45 medium

    Detention time in facultative oxidation pond is typically

    1. A 30 minutes
    2. B 5 to 10 days
    3. C 2 hours
    4. D 1 hour
    💡 Explanation:

    Long HRT compensates for low biomass density in ponds

  46. Q46 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Primary treatment removes mainly

    1. A Settleable and floatable solids
    2. B Dissolved nutrients completely
    3. C All pathogens
    4. D Heavy metals completely
    💡 Explanation:

    Primary clarifiers remove suspended solids by gravity settling

  47. Q47 easy

    Secondary treatment target is mainly

    1. A Only grit and oil
    2. B Total dissolved solids only
    3. C Radioactive isotopes
    4. D Biodegradable organic matter and BOD
    💡 Explanation:

    Biological secondary treatment reduces BOD and suspended organics

  48. Q48 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Tertiary treatment may include

    1. A Only bar screens
    2. B Nutrient removal and filtration
    3. C Grit channels only
    4. D Raw sewage pumping
    💡 Explanation:

    Advanced treatment adds nutrient removal, filtration, or disinfection

  49. Q49 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Nitrification converts

    1. A Nitrate to nitrogen gas
    2. B BOD to methane
    3. C Phosphate to sludge only
    4. D Ammonia to nitrate
    💡 Explanation:

    Autotrophic nitrifiers oxidize NH3 to NO2 and NO3 aerobically

  50. Q50 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Denitrification requires

    1. A Anoxic conditions and organic carbon
    2. B High dissolved oxygen
    3. C Chlorine dosing
    4. D Ultraviolet light only
    💡 Explanation:

    Denitrifiers reduce nitrate to N2 under anoxic conditions

  51. Q51 hard

    Biological phosphorus removal uses

    1. A Only primary clarifiers
    2. B Only chlorination
    3. C Alternating anaerobic-aerobic zones
    4. D Only grit removal
    💡 Explanation:

    PAOs release P anaerobically and uptake P aerobically

  52. Q52 medium

    Membrane bioreactor combines

    1. A Activated sludge with membrane filtration
    2. B Trickling filter with chlorination
    3. C Septic tank with RO only
    4. D Grit chamber with UV
    💡 Explanation:

    MBR replaces secondary clarifier with micro/ultrafiltration membranes

  53. Q53 medium

    Typical pore size classification for MBR is

    1. A Gravel filtration
    2. B Rapid sand 1 mm only
    3. C Microfiltration or ultrafiltration
    4. D No filtration
    💡 Explanation:

    MBR membranes retain biomass producing high quality effluent

  54. Q54 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Sludge volume index SVI indicates

    1. A BOD of influent
    2. B COD of effluent
    3. C Chlorine residual
    4. D Settleability of activated sludge
    💡 Explanation:

    High SVI suggests bulking sludge with poor settling

  55. Q55 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS hard

    Sludge bulking is often caused by

    1. A Excessive grit removal
    2. B Filamentous bacteria overgrowth
    3. C Too much chlorine in influent
    4. D Zero organic loading
    💡 Explanation:

    Filamentous organisms cause light fluffy sludge with high SVI

  56. Q56 easy

    Primary sludge from municipal WWTP is typically

    1. A Sterile and inert
    2. B Liquid with zero solids
    3. C Already stabilized completely
    4. D High solids content and putrescible
    💡 Explanation:

    Primary sludge is concentrated settleable solids needing further treatment

  57. Q57 easy

    Sludge digestion reduces

    1. A Concrete strength
    2. B Pipe diameter
    3. C Volatile solids and pathogens
    4. D Manning n value
    💡 Explanation:

    Digestion stabilizes sludge reducing odor and mass

  58. Q58 medium

    UV disinfection mechanism is

    1. A Sedimentation of viruses
    2. B DNA damage to microorganisms
    3. C Chemical oxidation with chlorine
    4. D Filtration through sand
    💡 Explanation:

    UV light inactivates pathogens without chemical residual

  59. Q59 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    COD measures

    1. A Only biodegradable fraction
    2. B Only nitrogen
    3. C Total organic matter oxidizable chemically
    4. D Only suspended grit
    💡 Explanation:

    COD uses strong oxidant capturing non-biodegradable organics too

  60. Q60 hard

    ThOD theoretically represents

    1. A Oxygen required for complete oxidation
    2. B Only chlorine demand
    3. C Only nitrogen gas volume
    4. D Only sludge volume
    💡 Explanation:

    Theoretical oxygen demand if all organics fully oxidized

  61. Q61 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    SRT in activated sludge is

    1. A Sewer Rise Time
    2. B Sludge Return Temperature
    3. C Settlement Rate Test
    4. D Solids Retention Time
    💡 Explanation:

    SRT is average time biomass remains in system affecting performance

  62. Q62 hard

    Contact stabilization process uses

    1. A Only oxidation pond
    2. B Only septic tank
    3. C Small contact tank and larger stabilization tank
    4. D Only UASB
    💡 Explanation:

    Adsorption in contact tank and regeneration in stabilization tank

  63. Q63 medium

    Sequencing Batch Reactor SBR operates in

    1. A Fill react settle decant cycle
    2. B Continuous flow only always
    3. C No aeration ever
    4. D Only primary treatment
    💡 Explanation:

    SBR performs all steps in single tank sequentially

  64. Q64 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Rotating biological contactor RBC uses

    1. A Static sand filter only
    2. B Only chemical coagulation
    3. C Only grit channel
    4. D Rotating media discs in wastewater
    💡 Explanation:

    Biofilm on rotating discs alternately contacts wastewater and air

  65. Q65 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Lagoons in Pakistan rural areas are often

    1. A MBR plants
    2. B Low cost facultative ponds
    3. C Nuclear cooled basins
    4. D Only packaged RO units
    💡 Explanation:

    Facultative lagoons suit warm climate and low maintenance needs

  66. Q66 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Effluent discharge standards in Pakistan are set by

    1. A NEQS National Environmental Quality Standards
    2. B Only local mason
    3. C Only WHO exclusively without local law
    4. D No standards exist
    💡 Explanation:

    NEQS regulate pollutants in industrial and municipal effluents

  67. Q67 medium

    Reclaimed wastewater for irrigation requires

    1. A No treatment ever
    2. B Adequate treatment and pathogen control
    3. C Only grit removal
    4. D Raw sewage application
    💡 Explanation:

    Reuse standards protect public health in water-scarce Pakistan

  68. Q68 medium

    Phosphorus removal chemically uses commonly

    1. A Only aeration
    2. B Only grit removal
    3. C Only UV without coagulants
    4. D Lime or alum coagulation
    💡 Explanation:

    Chemical precipitation with metal salts removes phosphate

  69. Q69 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Landfill disposal of dewatered sludge requires

    1. A No regulation
    2. B Direct dumping in rivers
    3. C Environmental compliance and leachate control
    4. D Open burning only
    💡 Explanation:

    Pakistan EPA guidelines restrict sludge disposal to protect environment