Water Supply and Environmental Engineering MCQs 2026

70 questions with detailed answers · 24 from past papers · 7 quiz batches available

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Page 1 of 1 Questions 110 of 70
  1. Q1 medium

    Leak detection in distribution uses

    1. A only rainfall gauges
    2. B district metering, acoustic sensors and pressure monitoring
    3. C only wind vanes
    4. D only BOD test
    💡 Explanation:

    NRW reduction improves supply sustainability.

  2. Q2 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Separate sewer system carries

    1. A combined flow always in same pipe
    2. B sanitary sewage in one set and stormwater in another
    3. C only irrigation water
    4. D only potable water
    💡 Explanation:

    Common in new urban designs.

  3. Q3 easy

    Combined sewer carries

    1. A sanitary waste and storm runoff in same conduit
    2. B only roof drainage in separate pipe always
    3. C only industrial cooling water always separate by law everywhere
    4. D only canal seepage
    💡 Explanation:

    Older cities; overflow during heavy rain.

  4. Q4 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Self-cleansing velocity in sewers prevents

    1. A solids deposition in pipe invert
    2. B pipe corrosion only
    3. C air pollution only
    4. D water hammer in mains
    💡 Explanation:

    Minimum velocity ~0.6 m/s for sanitary sewers typical.

  5. Q5 medium

    Sewer grade is designed for

    1. A self-cleansing at minimum flow and capacity at peak
    2. B zero slope always
    3. C maximum pressure flow
    4. D only atmospheric open channel in streets always
    💡 Explanation:

    Partial flow in circular pipes at design discharge.

  6. Q6 easy

    Manholes in sewer lines are spaced for

    1. A only decoration
    2. B only water treatment
    3. C inspection, cleaning and ventilation access
    4. D only fire hydrants
    💡 Explanation:

    Spacing limited by cleaning rod length and alignment change.

  7. Q7 medium

    Infiltration in sewers increases

    1. A treatment efficiency always
    2. B dissolved oxygen in influent beneficially always
    3. C wastewater volume and treatment load
    4. D zero wet weather flow
    💡 Explanation:

    Groundwater enters through defective joints.

  8. Q8 easy

    Sewage is defined as

    1. A only roof rainwater
    2. B only irrigation runoff always
    3. C only industrial cooling clean water
    4. D wastewater containing human waste and domestic activities
    💡 Explanation:

    Sanitary sewage requires treatment before disposal.

  9. Q9 medium

    Storm sewer design uses

    1. A only crop delta
    2. B only canal duty
    3. C rational method or storm models for peak runoff
    4. D only drip emitter curve
    💡 Explanation:

    Hydraulic design for design storm intensity.

  10. Q10 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures

    1. A total solids only
    2. B chlorine residual
    3. C hardness only
    4. D oxygen consumed by biodegradable organic matter
    💡 Explanation:

    BOD5 at 20°C standard incubation.

  11. Q11 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures

    1. A only dissolved oxygen in river
    2. B only nitrogen gas
    3. C only turbidity
    4. D oxygen equivalent to oxidize organic and oxidizable inorganic matter
    💡 Explanation:

    COD ≥ BOD; faster dichromate reflux test.

  12. Q12 easy

    High BOD effluent discharged to river causes

    1. A increased DO always
    2. B zero eutrophication
    3. C deoxygenation and fish kill
    4. D improved water quality
    💡 Explanation:

    Microbial oxidation depletes dissolved oxygen.

  13. Q13 medium

    BOD/COD ratio near 0.5 suggests

    1. A zero treatability
    2. B only chemical treatment possible always
    3. C no organic matter
    4. D biodegradable wastewater suitable for biological treatment
    💡 Explanation:

    Low ratio indicates refractory organics.

  14. Q14 hard

    Theoretical oxygen demand relates to

    1. A only suspended solids mass
    2. B only pipe friction
    3. C only rainfall
    4. D complete oxidation stoichiometry of known compounds
    💡 Explanation:

    ThOD from chemical formula; bench reference.

  15. Q15 medium

    Seeding in BOD test is needed when

    1. A sample is too clean distilled water only always
    2. B wastewater lacks sufficient microorganisms
    3. C COD is zero
    4. D temperature is 20°C
    💡 Explanation:

    Domestic sewage seed provides viable biomass.

  16. Q16 medium

    COD test uses

    1. A only 5-day incubation
    2. B only membrane filtration
    3. C strong chemical oxidant under reflux conditions
    4. D only sedimentation
    💡 Explanation:

    Dichromate in acid oxidizes organics in hours.

  17. Q17 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Primary treatment of sewage removes

    1. A settleable solids by screening and sedimentation
    2. B dissolved nutrients completely
    3. C all pathogens completely
    4. D all dissolved organics
    💡 Explanation:

    Physical treatment reduces BOD partially.

  18. Q18 hard

    Hardy Cross method analyzes

    1. A only open channel jump
    2. B pipe network flows by successive head balance correction
    3. C only unit hydrograph
    4. D only BOD curve
    💡 Explanation:

    Iterative adjustment for closed loop networks.

  19. Q19 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Water distribution system layouts include

    1. A only sewer separate system
    2. B only drip irrigation laterals
    3. C only canal minors
    4. D dead end, gridiron and ring systems
    💡 Explanation:

    Ring and grid improve reliability and pressure.

  20. Q20 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Turbidity in raw water is removed primarily by

    1. A only chlorination
    2. B only fluoridation
    3. C coagulation, sedimentation and filtration
    4. D only aeration alone
    💡 Explanation:

    Particle removal precedes disinfection for safety.

  21. Q21 medium

    Ozone disinfection advantage includes

    1. A long pipeline residual always without booster
    2. B zero cost always
    3. C no persistent THM formation like chlorine
    4. D no contact time needed
    💡 Explanation:

    Ozone decays quickly; may need secondary residual.

  22. Q22 medium

    Economical size of rising main balances

    1. A only paint cost
    2. B only air quality
    3. C only crop intensity
    4. D pipe cost against pumping energy cost
    💡 Explanation:

    Higher velocity raises friction head and power.

  23. Q23 medium

    Water hammer in distribution mains is mitigated by

    1. A instant valve closure always
    2. B slow closure of valves and surge tanks
    3. C removing air valves
    4. D zero pipe support
    💡 Explanation:

    Pressure surges from rapid flow changes.

  24. Q24 easy

    Service reservoir in distribution provides

    1. A storage for balancing, fire demand and pumping schedule
    2. B only sewage treatment
    3. C only rainfall measurement
    4. D only solid waste landfill
    💡 Explanation:

    Elevated or ground tanks stabilize supply.

  25. Q25 medium

    Scouring velocity in mains prevents

    1. A excessive leakage always desired
    2. B chlorine residual rise
    3. C sediment deposition in pipes
    4. D turbidity increase in source
    💡 Explanation:

    Minimum velocity flushes deposits during operation.

  26. Q26 medium

    Minimum residual pressure at consumer fixtures should typically be

    1. A zero always
    2. B 10–15 m head in flat areas per codes
    3. C 1000 m always
    4. D negative always
    💡 Explanation:

    Adequate pressure for taps and appliances.

  27. Q27 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Per capita water demand depends on

    1. A only pipe colour
    2. B climate, living standards and industrialization
    3. C only dam height
    4. D only wind direction
    💡 Explanation:

    Consumption rises with urbanization and amenities.

  28. Q28 medium

    Average domestic water demand in Indian/Pakistani towns may range

    1. A 5 litres only
    2. B 5000 litres only always
    3. C 135–225 litres per capita per day for design
    4. D zero in cities
    💡 Explanation:

    Codes give ranges; actual varies with supply hours.

  29. Q29 medium

    Fire demand in water supply design is often governed by

    1. A only irrigation duty
    2. B only sewer infiltration
    3. C only rainfall intensity
    4. D largest fire flow plus simultaneous domestic use
    💡 Explanation:

    Fire fighting requires high short-duration flow.

  30. Q30 medium

    Coincidence factor in water demand means

    1. A not all fixtures operate simultaneously
    2. B all taps open always
    3. C zero night flow
    4. D infinite peak always
    💡 Explanation:

    Diversity reduces design flow below sum of maxima.

  31. Q31 medium

    Industrial water demand is estimated from

    1. A only canal Lacey formula
    2. B only unit hydrograph
    3. C only air quality index
    4. D process requirements and employee facilities
    💡 Explanation:

    Industry may dominate total demand in industrial cities.

  32. Q32 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Unaccounted for water (UFW) includes

    1. A only billed consumption
    2. B leakage, illegal connections and metering errors
    3. C only fire flow
    4. D only crop evapotranspiration
    💡 Explanation:

    Reducing UFW is key performance indicator for utilities.

  33. Q33 medium

    Peak hourly demand factor relates

    1. A maximum hour flow to average daily flow
    2. B only annual rainfall to runoff
    3. C BOD to population only
    4. D Manning n to slope
    💡 Explanation:

    Used in pipe and pump sizing.

  34. Q34 easy

    Design period for water supply project is typically

    1. A 30 years for components with staged capacity
    2. B 1 day only
    3. C 500 years always
    4. D zero planning horizon
    💡 Explanation:

    Forecast horizon balances cost and uncertainty.

  35. Q35 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Arithmetic increase method of population forecast assumes

    1. A constant percentage growth
    2. B zero migration
    3. C logarithmic decline only
    4. D constant absolute increase per decade
    💡 Explanation:

    Simple; suited to stable mature towns.

  36. Q36 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Geometric increase method assumes

    1. A constant absolute increase
    2. B population never changes
    3. C negative growth always
    4. D constant percentage growth rate
    💡 Explanation:

    P_n = P_0(1+r)^n for compounding growth.

  37. Q37 medium

    Decreasing growth rate method reflects

    1. A saturation as city approaches limiting population
    2. B unlimited exponential growth forever
    3. C instant zero population
    4. D only industrial load
    💡 Explanation:

    Growth rate declines linearly to zero at saturation.

  38. Q38 medium

    Migration significantly affects population forecast in

    1. A closed static villages only with no change ever
    2. B uninhabited deserts
    3. C new industrial towns and provincial capitals
    4. D ocean platforms without residents
    💡 Explanation:

    Job opportunities drive rapid in-migration.

  39. Q39 easy

    Design population for water works is projected to

    1. A only past century
    2. B only one day event
    3. C end of design period from current census trend
    4. D zero residents
    💡 Explanation:

    Infrastructure sized for future demand at horizon.

  40. Q40 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Coagulation in water treatment uses chemicals to

    1. A disinfect pathogens only
    2. B destabilize colloidal particles for aggregation
    3. C add hardness
    4. D increase colour permanently
    💡 Explanation:

    Alum and ferric salts neutralize particle charges.

  41. Q41 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Flocculation follows coagulation to

    1. A rapid mix only without floc growth
    2. B filter without settling
    3. C disinfect without contact
    4. D gentle mixing forming settleable floc
    💡 Explanation:

    Slow stir increases floc size for sedimentation.

  42. Q42 medium

    Alum dosage in coagulation depends on

    1. A only pipe diameter
    2. B only wind speed
    3. C raw water turbidity, alkalinity and pH
    4. D only crop type
    💡 Explanation:

    Insufficient alkalinity may require lime addition.

  43. Q43 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Sedimentation tank removes

    1. A dissolved salts only
    2. B settleable floc by gravity
    3. C gases only
    4. D colour by oxidation only
    💡 Explanation:

    Detention time and overflow rate govern performance.

  44. Q44 medium

    Surface overflow rate in sedimentation is defined as

    1. A flow divided by plan area of tank
    2. B depth divided by width only
    3. C head loss in filter
    4. D BOD loading
    💡 Explanation:

    Lower SOR improves settling; typical 20–40 m³/m²/day.

  45. Q45 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Rapid gravity sand filter removes

    1. A only dissolved ions without media
    2. B only pathogens without disinfection
    3. C only CO2 only
    4. D fine suspended particles after sedimentation
    💡 Explanation:

    Schmutzdecke and sand bed provide depth filtration.

  46. Q46 medium

    Effective size of filter sand refers to

    1. A largest particle only
    2. B size passing 10% by weight in sieve analysis
    3. C average of extremes only without specification
    4. D depth of tank
    💡 Explanation:

    ES and uniformity coefficient define gradation.

  47. Q47 easy

    Backwashing of filters is done to

    1. A remove accumulated solids and restore headroom
    2. B compact sand permanently
    3. C disinfect without chlorine
    4. D coagulate floc
    💡 Explanation:

    Reverse flow fluidizes bed ejecting trapped matter.

  48. Q48 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Chlorine disinfection residual maintained in distribution

    1. A prevents microbial regrowth in pipes
    2. B increases turbidity always
    3. C softens water alone
    4. D coagulates alum
    💡 Explanation:

    Free or combined residual per standards.

  49. Q49 medium

    Slow sand filter differs from rapid filter by

    1. A higher rate and pressure only always
    2. B biological schmutzdecke and lower loading rates
    3. C no removal of bacteria ever
    4. D chemical coagulation always required
    💡 Explanation:

    SSF effective for low turbidity source waters.

  50. Q50 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Hardness in water is mainly due to

    1. A sodium chloride only
    2. B oxygen only
    3. C calcium and magnesium salts
    4. D suspended clay only
    💡 Explanation:

    Carbonate and non-carbonate hardness treated differently.

  51. Q51 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Activated sludge process uses

    1. A anaerobic pond only without oxygen
    2. B only chlorination
    3. C aerobic microorganisms in mixed liquor with recycle
    4. D only slow sand filter
    💡 Explanation:

    Aeration tank + secondary clarifier + RAS/WAS.

  52. Q52 medium

    Return activated sludge (RAS) maintains

    1. A microbial population in aeration tank
    2. B zero MLSS
    3. C only grit in tank
    4. D only algae in clarifier
    💡 Explanation:

    Settled biomass recycled to sustain F/M ratio.

  53. Q53 hard

    Mean cell residence time (θc) increase generally improves

    1. A effluent quality and nitrification potential
    2. B sludge washout always
    3. C zero treatment
    4. D only short circuit
    💡 Explanation:

    Longer SRT retains slow-growing nitrifiers.

  54. Q54 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Trickling filter treatment relies on

    1. A biofilm on media contacted by applied wastewater
    2. B suspended pure oxygen only without biomass
    3. C only chemical coagulation
    4. D only grit chamber
    💡 Explanation:

    Fixed film aerobic degradation of organics.

  55. Q55 hard

    Sludge volume index (SVI) indicates

    1. A pipe roughness
    2. B settleability of activated sludge
    3. C rainfall depth
    4. D wind speed
    💡 Explanation:

    High SVI suggests bulking and poor clarification.

  56. Q56 medium

    Anaerobic digestion of sludge produces

    1. A only chlorine gas
    2. B only ozone
    3. C only pure oxygen without CO2
    4. D biogas mainly methane and stabilized sludge
    💡 Explanation:

    Reduces volume and pathogens in digested cake.

  57. Q57 medium

    Extended aeration activated sludge has

    1. A very high organic loading always
    2. B no aeration
    3. C low F/M and long SRT with less excess sludge
    4. D only primary treatment
    💡 Explanation:

    Package plants for small communities.

  58. Q58 easy

    Municipal solid waste composition in urban Pakistan/India includes

    1. A only liquid sewage
    2. B organic fraction, paper, plastics and ash
    3. C only industrial acids always
    4. D only radioactive waste
    💡 Explanation:

    High organics influence composting and landfill gas.

  59. Q59 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Sanitary landfill is designed with

    1. A liners, leachate collection and daily cover
    2. B open burning only
    3. C direct river dumping
    4. D zero compaction
    💡 Explanation:

    Controlled disposal minimizes groundwater contamination.

  60. Q60 medium

    Composting of MSW stabilizes

    1. A all plastics completely
    2. B metals into gases only
    3. C glass rapidly
    4. D biodegradable organics into humus-like product
    💡 Explanation:

    Aerobic or windrow composting reduces putrescibility.

  61. Q61 medium

    Incineration of waste reduces

    1. A volume to zero ash-free always
    2. B need for any air pollution control
    3. C volume and mass while recovering energy if controlled
    4. D toxic metals into nothing
    💡 Explanation:

    Air pollution control required for acid gases and particulates.

  62. Q62 easy

    Leachate from landfill contains

    1. A only distilled water
    2. B dissolved organics, ammonia and metals
    3. C only oxygen gas
    4. D zero contaminants ever
    💡 Explanation:

    Must be collected and treated.

  63. Q63 easy

    Suspended particulate matter (SPM) in air affects

    1. A only soil fertility beneficially always
    2. B only groundwater head
    3. C only pipe friction
    4. D respiratory health and visibility
    💡 Explanation:

    PM2.5 penetrates deep into lungs.

  64. Q64 medium

    Photochemical smog involves

    1. A NOx and VOCs forming ozone in sunlight
    2. B only CO2 alone without sunlight
    3. C only BOD in river
    4. D only chlorine in water
    💡 Explanation:

    Oxidants irritate eyes and damage vegetation.

  65. Q65 easy

    Noise pollution level is measured on

    1. A linear percentage only
    2. B decibel scale logarithmic with respect to reference pressure
    3. C BOD scale
    4. D Mohs hardness
    💡 Explanation:

    dB(A) weights frequency for human perception.

  66. Q66 medium

    Catalytic converter in vehicles reduces

    1. A only water demand
    2. B CO, HC and NOx in exhaust
    3. C only BOD in sewage
    4. D only canal seepage
    💡 Explanation:

    After-treatment for petrol engine emissions.

  67. Q67 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Pakistan NEQS for municipal wastewater set limits on

    1. A BOD, COD, TSS and heavy metals for discharge
    2. B only rainfall intensity
    3. C only crop delta
    4. D only canal duty
    💡 Explanation:

    National Environmental Quality Standards regulate effluents.

  68. Q68 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    WHO drinking water guideline addresses

    1. A only irrigation scheduling
    2. B only highway noise
    3. C microbial, chemical and radiological quality
    4. D only landfill compaction
    💡 Explanation:

    International reference for potable supply limits.

  69. Q69 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Dissolved oxygen in healthy river is typically

    1. A zero always
    2. B saturated with BOD only
    3. C equal to COD
    4. D above 5 mg/L for cold water fisheries
    💡 Explanation:

    DO maintenance critical for aquatic life.

  70. Q70 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Eutrophication in lakes is driven by

    1. A only sediment deposition without nutrients
    2. B nutrient enrichment especially nitrogen and phosphorus
    3. C only wind erosion
    4. D only chlorine residual
    💡 Explanation:

    Algal blooms deplete oxygen on die-off.