Microbiology and Immunology MCQs 2026

50 questions with detailed answers · 19 from past papers · 5 quiz batches available

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Page 1 of 1 Questions 110 of 50
  1. Q1 hard

    The transfer of genetic material between bacteria through a bacteriophage vector is known as

    1. A Transduction
    2. B Transformation
    3. C Conjugation
    4. D Sporulation
    💡 Explanation:

    Transduction involves a bacteriophage accidentally packaging and transferring bacterial DNA between cells.

  2. Q2 easy

    Which of the following is a fungal disease affecting humans

    1. A Malaria
    2. B Tuberculosis
    3. C Cholera
    4. D Ringworm (Tinea)
    💡 Explanation:

    Ringworm, or tinea, is a common skin infection caused by dermatophyte fungi.

  3. Q3 medium

    Vaccines work primarily by stimulating the production of

    1. A Red blood cells
    2. B Platelets
    3. C Digestive enzymes
    4. D Memory cells and antibodies
    💡 Explanation:

    Vaccines expose the immune system to a harmless antigen form, prompting memory cell and antibody production for future protection.

  4. Q4 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Malaria is transmitted to humans through the bite of

    1. A Female Anopheles mosquito
    2. B Female Aedes mosquito
    3. C Tsetse fly
    4. D Sandfly
    💡 Explanation:

    The female Anopheles mosquito transmits the Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria.

  5. Q5 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Which of the following microorganisms is used in the fermentation of milk into yogurt

    1. A Saccharomyces cerevisiae
    2. B Rhizobium leguminosarum
    3. C Lactobacillus bulgaricus
    4. D Escherichia coli
    💡 Explanation:

    Lactobacillus bulgaricus ferments lactose into lactic acid, curdling milk into yogurt.

  6. Q6 medium

    The direct transfer of DNA between two bacteria through a conjugation tube (pilus) is called

    1. A Transduction
    2. B Transformation
    3. C Conjugation
    4. D Binary fission
    💡 Explanation:

    Conjugation involves direct cell-to-cell contact via a pilus to transfer plasmid DNA between bacteria.

  7. Q7 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Which of the following bacteria is capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of leguminous plants

    1. A Escherichia coli
    2. B Lactobacillus
    3. C Rhizobium
    4. D Salmonella
    💡 Explanation:

    Rhizobium bacteria form symbiotic nodules on legume roots and convert atmospheric nitrogen into usable ammonia.

  8. Q8 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Typhoid fever is caused by

    1. A Vibrio cholerae
    2. B Salmonella typhi
    3. C Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    4. D Clostridium tetani
    💡 Explanation:

    Salmonella typhi, spread through contaminated food and water, causes typhoid fever.

  9. Q9 medium

    Which type of immunity develops after a person recovers from a disease, having produced their own antibodies

    1. A Passive natural immunity
    2. B Passive artificial immunity
    3. C Active natural immunity
    4. D Active artificial immunity
    💡 Explanation:

    Recovering from an infection and producing your own antibodies is active natural immunity.

  10. Q10 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Tetanus, characterized by muscle spasms, is caused by a toxin produced by

    1. A Vibrio cholerae
    2. B Clostridium tetani
    3. C Mycobacterium leprae
    4. D Salmonella typhi
    💡 Explanation:

    Clostridium tetani releases a neurotoxin that causes the severe muscle spasms of tetanus.

  11. Q11 medium

    Which part of the immune system remembers a previously encountered pathogen, enabling a faster response upon re-exposure

    1. A Memory cells
    2. B Neutrophils
    3. C Basophils
    4. D Erythrocytes
    💡 Explanation:

    Memory B and T cells persist after an infection and mount a faster, stronger response upon re-exposure.

  12. Q12 hard

    Which infectious agent consists solely of protein, with no nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) at all

    1. A Prion
    2. B Viroid
    3. C Bacteriophage
    4. D Retrovirus
    💡 Explanation:

    Prions are misfolded infectious proteins that cause disease without containing any genetic material.

  13. Q13 medium

    The first line of defense against pathogens, including physical barriers like skin and mucous membranes, is part of

    1. A Acquired immunity
    2. B Humoral immunity
    3. C Innate immunity
    4. D Cell-mediated immunity
    💡 Explanation:

    Innate immunity includes non-specific physical and chemical barriers present from birth.

  14. Q14 easy

    Which cells engulf and destroy pathogens through phagocytosis

    1. A Macrophages
    2. B B lymphocytes
    3. C Plasma cells
    4. D Red blood cells
    💡 Explanation:

    Macrophages are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens and cellular debris.

  15. Q15 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Leprosy (Hansen's disease) is caused by

    1. A Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    2. B Vibrio cholerae
    3. C Clostridium tetani
    4. D Mycobacterium leprae
    💡 Explanation:

    Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, a chronic infection affecting skin and peripheral nerves.

  16. Q16 easy

    An allergic reaction occurs when the immune system overreacts to a normally harmless substance called

    1. A A pathogen
    2. B A toxin
    3. C An antibody
    4. D An allergen
    💡 Explanation:

    An allergen is a normally harmless substance that triggers an exaggerated immune response in sensitive individuals.

  17. Q17 medium

    Which group of microorganisms is characterized by being eukaryotic, unicellular or multicellular, and often photosynthetic

    1. A Bacteria
    2. B Algae
    3. C Viruses
    4. D Prions
    💡 Explanation:

    Algae are eukaryotic organisms, many of which carry out photosynthesis, unlike bacteria or viruses.

  18. Q18 medium

    Antibiotic resistance in bacteria primarily arises due to

    1. A Loss of a cell wall
    2. B Genetic mutations and horizontal gene transfer
    3. C Absence of ribosomes
    4. D Formation of a nucleus
    💡 Explanation:

    Resistance genes spread through mutation and horizontal transfer mechanisms like conjugation and transformation.

  19. Q19 hard

    Which type of white blood cell directly destroys virus-infected or cancerous cells without antibodies

    1. A B lymphocytes
    2. B Plasma cells
    3. C Basophils
    4. D Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CD8+)
    💡 Explanation:

    Cytotoxic T cells directly kill infected or abnormal cells by recognizing antigens on their surface.

  20. Q20 medium

    Endospores, which allow certain bacteria to survive harsh conditions, are commonly formed by genera such as

    1. A Escherichia and Salmonella
    2. B Bacillus and Clostridium
    3. C Vibrio and Rhizobium
    4. D Mycobacterium and Treponema
    💡 Explanation:

    Bacillus and Clostridium species form highly resistant endospores to survive extreme conditions.

  21. Q21 easy

    The protein coat that encloses the genetic material of a virus is called the

    1. A Envelope
    2. B Capsid
    3. C Capsule
    4. D Cell wall
    💡 Explanation:

    The capsid is the protein shell that protects a virus's nucleic acid core.

  22. Q22 easy

    Which of the following diseases can be prevented by the oral polio vaccine (OPV)

    1. A Measles
    2. B Poliomyelitis
    3. C Mumps
    4. D Rubella
    💡 Explanation:

    The oral polio vaccine protects against poliomyelitis, a viral disease affecting the nervous system.

  23. Q23 hard

    Retroviruses, such as HIV, are unique because they use the enzyme

    1. A DNA polymerase to replicate DNA directly
    2. B RNA polymerase to transcribe DNA
    3. C Reverse transcriptase to convert RNA into DNA
    4. D Ligase to join RNA fragments
    💡 Explanation:

    Reverse transcriptase allows retroviruses to convert their RNA genome into DNA for integration into the host genome.

  24. Q24 medium

    Cell-mediated immunity, as opposed to humoral immunity, primarily involves the action of

    1. A T lymphocytes
    2. B Plasma cells
    3. C Antibodies circulating in blood
    4. D Mast cells
    💡 Explanation:

    Cell-mediated immunity is driven by T lymphocytes, which directly attack infected cells rather than relying on circulating antibodies.

  25. Q25 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    The first person to observe and describe microorganisms (animalcules) under a microscope was

    1. A Robert Hooke
    2. B Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
    3. C Louis Pasteur
    4. D Robert Koch
    💡 Explanation:

    Antonie van Leeuwenhoek used his handcrafted microscopes to first observe bacteria and protozoa, calling them animalcules.

  26. Q26 easy

    Which of the following microbial diseases is caused by a protozoan, not a bacterium or virus

    1. A Tuberculosis
    2. B Tetanus
    3. C Malaria
    4. D Cholera
    💡 Explanation:

    Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, a protozoan parasite, unlike the bacterial diseases listed.

  27. Q27 hard

    Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis, a severe and rapid allergic reaction

    1. A Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity
    2. B Type II hypersensitivity
    3. C Type III hypersensitivity
    4. D Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
    💡 Explanation:

    Type I hypersensitivity involves IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, producing rapid, severe reactions like anaphylaxis.

  28. Q28 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Robert Koch is best known for formulating

    1. A The theory of evolution
    2. B The postulates that establish a causal link between a microbe and a disease
    3. C The germ theory of pasteurization
    4. D The structure of DNA
    💡 Explanation:

    Koch's postulates are a set of criteria used to establish that a specific microorganism causes a specific disease.

  29. Q29 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Which scientist developed the germ theory of disease and pioneered pasteurization

    1. A Louis Pasteur
    2. B Robert Koch
    3. C Alexander Fleming
    4. D Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
    💡 Explanation:

    Louis Pasteur proposed the germ theory of disease and invented pasteurization to kill harmful microbes in liquids.

  30. Q30 medium

    A vaccine containing a weakened but live form of a pathogen is called a/an

    1. A Inactivated vaccine
    2. B Toxoid vaccine
    3. C Subunit vaccine
    4. D Attenuated (live) vaccine
    💡 Explanation:

    Attenuated vaccines use a weakened live pathogen that still triggers a strong immune response without causing full disease.

  31. Q31 hard

    Which of the following best distinguishes gram-positive from gram-negative bacteria under Gram staining

    1. A Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple
    2. B Gram-negative bacteria retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple
    3. C Gram-positive bacteria lack a cell wall entirely
    4. D Gram-negative bacteria have a thicker peptidoglycan layer
    💡 Explanation:

    Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer that retains crystal violet, staining them purple.

  32. Q32 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    The lymphatic organ that filters blood and recycles old red blood cells is the

    1. A Thymus
    2. B Tonsils
    3. C Spleen
    4. D Appendix
    💡 Explanation:

    The spleen filters blood, removes old or damaged red blood cells, and helps fight infection.

  33. Q33 medium

    Which of the following is an example of an autoimmune disease

    1. A Malaria
    2. B Tuberculosis
    3. C Cholera
    4. D Rheumatoid arthritis
    💡 Explanation:

    Rheumatoid arthritis results from the immune system attacking the joints, unlike the other listed infectious diseases.

  34. Q34 easy

    Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system

    1. A Mistakenly attacks the body's own healthy cells
    2. B Fails to recognize any pathogens at all
    3. C Produces excess red blood cells
    4. D Cannot produce any antibodies
    💡 Explanation:

    In autoimmune disease, the immune system loses tolerance and attacks the body's own tissues as if foreign.

  35. Q35 hard

    Interferons are proteins released by virus-infected cells that primarily function to

    1. A Directly kill the virus particles
    2. B Digest bacterial cell walls
    3. C Produce antibodies against the virus
    4. D Warn neighboring cells and inhibit viral replication
    💡 Explanation:

    Interferons signal nearby healthy cells to heighten their antiviral defenses, limiting viral spread.

  36. Q36 medium

    A molecule on the surface of a pathogen that triggers a specific immune response is called a/an

    1. A Antibody
    2. B Interferon
    3. C Antigen
    4. D Cytokine
    💡 Explanation:

    An antigen is any molecule recognized by the immune system that triggers antibody production or a T-cell response.

  37. Q37 hard

    The complement system in immunity refers to

    1. A A group of hormones regulating blood sugar
    2. B Antibodies produced by plasma cells
    3. C A group of blood proteins that enhance the ability to clear pathogens
    4. D White blood cells that engulf bacteria
    💡 Explanation:

    The complement system consists of blood plasma proteins that enhance phagocytosis and directly lyse pathogens.

  38. Q38 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Saccharomyces cerevisiae, commonly known as baker's and brewer's yeast, is used industrially to produce

    1. A Ethanol and carbon dioxide through fermentation
    2. B Antibiotics such as penicillin
    3. C Insulin through recombinant DNA
    4. D Nitrogen fixation in soil
    💡 Explanation:

    This yeast ferments sugars anaerobically to produce ethanol and carbon dioxide, used in baking and brewing.

  39. Q39 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    The gram staining technique differentiates bacteria based on differences in

    1. A Size of bacterial cell
    2. B Presence of flagella
    3. C Shape of the bacterium
    4. D Composition of the cell wall
    💡 Explanation:

    Gram staining distinguishes gram-positive (thick peptidoglycan) from gram-negative (thin peptidoglycan plus outer membrane) bacteria based on cell wall structure.

  40. Q40 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Which scientist is credited with discovering penicillin, the first antibiotic

    1. A Robert Koch
    2. B Louis Pasteur
    3. C Edward Jenner
    4. D Alexander Fleming
    💡 Explanation:

    Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 from the mold Penicillium notatum.

  41. Q41 medium

    The lytic and lysogenic cycles describe the reproduction strategies of

    1. A Bacteria
    2. B Fungi
    3. C Bacteriophages (viruses)
    4. D Protozoa
    💡 Explanation:

    Bacteriophages replicate via the lytic cycle (immediate host cell destruction) or the lysogenic cycle (integration into host DNA).

  42. Q42 hard

    Which type of immunity is provided by antibodies transferred from mother to fetus through the placenta

    1. A Active natural immunity
    2. B Passive natural immunity
    3. C Active artificial immunity
    4. D Passive artificial immunity
    💡 Explanation:

    The fetus receives ready-made maternal antibodies without producing its own, making it passive and natural.

  43. Q43 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Tuberculosis is caused by

    1. A Vibrio cholerae
    2. B Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    3. C Salmonella typhi
    4. D Clostridium tetani
    💡 Explanation:

    Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacterium responsible for tuberculosis, primarily affecting the lungs.

  44. Q44 medium

    The process by which bacteria take up free DNA fragments from their surroundings is called

    1. A Transformation
    2. B Conjugation
    3. C Transduction
    4. D Binary fission
    💡 Explanation:

    Transformation is the uptake of naked DNA from the environment directly into a bacterial cell.

  45. Q45 medium

    Which blood cells are primarily responsible for antibody-mediated (humoral) immunity

    1. A T lymphocytes
    2. B B lymphocytes
    3. C Neutrophils
    4. D Monocytes
    💡 Explanation:

    B lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies, driving humoral immunity.

  46. Q46 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    HIV primarily attacks which type of cell in the human immune system

    1. A B lymphocytes
    2. B Helper T lymphocytes (CD4+)
    3. C Red blood cells
    4. D Platelets
    💡 Explanation:

    HIV specifically targets and destroys CD4+ helper T cells, crippling the immune response over time.

  47. Q47 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Edward Jenner is best known for developing the first vaccine against

    1. A Rabies
    2. B Anthrax
    3. C Polio
    4. D Smallpox
    💡 Explanation:

    Edward Jenner used cowpox material to create the first smallpox vaccine in 1796.

  48. Q48 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Which of the following best describes the structure of a typical antibody molecule

    1. A Single straight polypeptide chain
    2. B Circular plasmid-like structure
    3. C Y-shaped molecule with two heavy and two light chains
    4. D Spherical protein capsid
    💡 Explanation:

    Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are Y-shaped proteins made of two heavy and two light polypeptide chains.

  49. Q49 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS medium

    Which organ is responsible for the maturation of T lymphocytes

    1. A Thymus
    2. B Spleen
    3. C Liver
    4. D Bone marrow
    💡 Explanation:

    T lymphocytes originate in bone marrow but mature in the thymus, hence the name T cell.

  50. Q50 Past Paper · PPSC/FPSC/NTS easy

    Cholera, characterized by severe watery diarrhea, is caused by

    1. A Salmonella typhi
    2. B Escherichia coli
    3. C Mycobacterium leprae
    4. D Vibrio cholerae
    💡 Explanation:

    Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that causes the profuse watery diarrhea typical of cholera.