Abnormal Psychology and Psychopathology MCQs 2026

50 questions with detailed answers · 0 from past papers · 5 quiz batches available

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Page 1 of 1 Questions 110 of 50
  1. Q1 medium

    The diathesis-stress model explains disorder as the result of:

    1. A Medication alone
    2. B Vulnerability interacting with stress
    3. C Birth order alone
    4. D Dream symbols alone
    💡 Explanation:

    The model combines predisposition with environmental or psychological stressors.

  2. Q2 easy

    The biopsychosocial model emphasizes:

    1. A Genetics only
    2. B Punishment only
    3. C Brain scans only
    4. D Interaction of biological, psychological, and social factors
    💡 Explanation:

    The model integrates multiple levels of influence on mental disorders.

  3. Q3 medium

    Higher concordance for a disorder among monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins suggests:

    1. A Genetic influence
    2. B No environmental effect
    3. C Malingering
    4. D A measurement error only
    💡 Explanation:

    Greater similarity in identical twins points to heritable contribution.

  4. Q4 medium

    A prodromal phase of psychosis refers to:

    1. A The final stage of dementia only
    2. B Early subtle symptoms before a full psychotic episode
    3. C A medication side effect only
    4. D A legally defined insanity plea
    💡 Explanation:

    Prodromal signs precede the clear onset of psychosis.

  5. Q5 easy

    Which is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

    1. A Flat affect
    2. B Grandiose delusion
    3. C Command hallucination
    4. D Disorganized speech
    💡 Explanation:

    Negative symptoms reflect reduced emotional expression or motivation.

  6. Q6 easy

    Which symptom is classified as a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

    1. A Auditory hallucinations
    2. B Flat affect
    3. C Avolition
    4. D Social withdrawal
    💡 Explanation:

    Positive symptoms add abnormal experiences such as hallucinations or delusions.

  7. Q7 easy

    The minimum duration of symptoms for a major depressive episode is usually:

    1. A Two days
    2. B Two weeks
    3. C Six months
    4. D One year
    💡 Explanation:

    DSM criteria require at least two weeks of depressive symptoms with impairment.

  8. Q8 easy

    A panic attack typically reaches peak intensity within:

    1. A Several hours
    2. B Several days
    3. C Minutes
    4. D Several weeks
    💡 Explanation:

    Panic attacks are abrupt surges of fear that peak within minutes.

  9. Q9 easy

    In obsessive-compulsive disorder, a compulsion is best described as:

    1. A A fixed false belief
    2. B A sudden loss of memory
    3. C A manic mood episode
    4. D A repetitive act performed to reduce anxiety
    💡 Explanation:

    Compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts aimed at reducing distress.

  10. Q10 easy

    Generalized anxiety disorder is most associated with:

    1. A Excessive worry across many situations
    2. B Brief fear limited to one object
    3. C Alternating mania and depression
    4. D Loss of contact with reality
    💡 Explanation:

    GAD involves persistent and excessive worry about several events or activities.

  11. Q11 easy

    A diagnosis of bipolar I disorder requires at least one:

    1. A Panic attack
    2. B Manic episode
    3. C Specific phobia
    4. D Dysthymic episode
    💡 Explanation:

    Bipolar I is defined by the occurrence of a manic episode.

  12. Q12 medium

    Post-traumatic stress disorder commonly includes which cluster of symptoms?

    1. A Only compulsions and obsessions
    2. B Only grandiosity and pressured speech
    3. C Intrusion, avoidance, negative mood, and arousal symptoms
    4. D Only memory loss without distress
    💡 Explanation:

    PTSD includes intrusion, avoidance, negative cognitions or mood, and arousal changes after trauma.

  13. Q13 medium

    Dissociative identity disorder is characterized by:

    1. A Persistent fear of public scrutiny
    2. B Intentional production of symptoms for money
    3. C Restricted eating due to body image fear
    4. D Disruption of identity with recurrent gaps in recall
    💡 Explanation:

    The disorder involves distinct identity states and recurrent amnesia.

  14. Q14 easy

    Anorexia nervosa centrally involves:

    1. A Restriction of energy intake with intense fear of weight gain
    2. B Binge eating without distress
    3. C Psychosis after substance use
    4. D Excessive sleep with euphoria
    💡 Explanation:

    Anorexia involves restriction, significantly low weight, and fear of gaining weight.

  15. Q15 easy

    Bulimia nervosa is distinguished by recurrent binge eating plus:

    1. A Permanent memory decline
    2. B Compensatory behaviors such as vomiting or laxative misuse
    3. C Fixed non-bizarre delusions
    4. D Motor tics before age six
    💡 Explanation:

    Bulimia combines binge episodes with inappropriate compensatory behaviors.

  16. Q16 medium

    Somatic symptom disorder emphasizes:

    1. A Symptoms intentionally feigned for external reward
    2. B Only neurological symptoms from brain injury
    3. C Excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors about physical symptoms
    4. D Mood elevation lasting one week
    💡 Explanation:

    The key feature is disproportionate psychological response to somatic symptoms.

  17. Q17 easy

    A delusion is:

    1. A A perception of a real object
    2. B A learned motor habit
    3. C A normal grief response
    4. D A fixed false belief not changed by contrary evidence
    💡 Explanation:

    Delusions are firmly held false beliefs despite clear contradictory evidence.

  18. Q18 hard

    Kleptomania is best described as:

    1. A Fear of being trapped in crowds
    2. B Recurrent binge eating
    3. C Repeated panic attacks after trauma
    4. D Recurrent failure to resist stealing items not needed for use or value
    💡 Explanation:

    Kleptomania is an impulse-control disorder involving stealing without practical need.

  19. Q19 medium

    Intermittent explosive disorder features:

    1. A Aggressive outbursts grossly out of proportion to provocation
    2. B Persistent depressed mood only
    3. C Fixed hallucinations
    4. D Identity switching
    💡 Explanation:

    Outbursts are impulsive and disproportionate, not premeditated.

  20. Q20 medium

    Substance use disorder is assessed through criteria involving:

    1. A Only intelligence scores
    2. B Impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological signs
    3. C Only dream content
    4. D Only family size
    💡 Explanation:

    Diagnostic criteria cover behavior, consequences, risk, tolerance, and withdrawal.

  21. Q21 easy

    Withdrawal refers to:

    1. A A false sensory perception
    2. B Fear of public places
    3. C Symptoms after reducing or stopping a substance
    4. D Long-term stable personality trait
    💡 Explanation:

    Withdrawal symptoms appear after substance reduction or cessation.

  22. Q22 easy

    Tolerance means:

    1. A Inability to recall childhood
    2. B Fear of germs
    3. C A sudden manic episode
    4. D Needing more of a substance for the same effect or reduced effect at the same dose
    💡 Explanation:

    Tolerance reflects adaptation that reduces response to the usual dose.

  23. Q23 easy

    A hallucination is:

    1. A A perception without an external stimulus
    2. B A mistaken interpretation of a real stimulus
    3. C A culturally shared belief
    4. D A learned relaxation response
    💡 Explanation:

    Hallucinations are sensory experiences without corresponding external input.

  24. Q24 easy

    An illusion differs from a hallucination because an illusion is:

    1. A A fixed false belief
    2. B A misperception of a real external stimulus
    3. C A complete lack of emotion
    4. D A panic attack
    💡 Explanation:

    Illusions distort real stimuli, while hallucinations occur without stimuli.

  25. Q25 easy

    An obsession is:

    1. A A learned reward
    2. B A sleep stage
    3. C An intrusive and unwanted thought, urge, or image
    4. D A legal incentive
    💡 Explanation:

    Obsessions are recurrent intrusive mental events that cause distress.

  26. Q26 easy

    A compulsion is performed mainly to:

    1. A Increase hallucinations
    2. B Create a manic episode
    3. C Improve intelligence
    4. D Reduce distress or prevent a feared event
    💡 Explanation:

    Compulsions are aimed at neutralizing anxiety or preventing feared outcomes.

  27. Q27 medium

    Learned helplessness theory is most often linked to:

    1. A Depression
    2. B Narcissism
    3. C Delirium
    4. D Kleptomania
    💡 Explanation:

    Learned helplessness explains depressive passivity after uncontrollable stress.

  28. Q28 medium

    The dopamine hypothesis is most closely associated with:

    1. A Specific learning disorder
    2. B Conversion paralysis
    3. C Psychotic symptoms in schizophrenia
    4. D Seasonal sleep changes
    💡 Explanation:

    Dopamine dysregulation is linked especially to positive psychotic symptoms.

  29. Q29 medium

    Delirium is characterized by:

    1. A Acute, fluctuating disturbance in attention and awareness
    2. B Lifelong intellectual deficits only
    3. C Stable personality traits
    4. D Six months of worry
    💡 Explanation:

    Delirium has abrupt onset, fluctuating course, and impaired attention.

  30. Q30 medium

    Major neurocognitive disorder usually involves:

    1. A A single panic attack
    2. B Significant cognitive decline interfering with independence
    3. C Fear of body weight
    4. D Short-lived euphoria
    💡 Explanation:

    Major neurocognitive disorder impairs cognition enough to affect daily independence.

  31. Q31 easy

    Autism spectrum disorder commonly includes:

    1. A Only hallucinations
    2. B Only depressed mood
    3. C Social communication deficits and restricted repetitive behaviors
    4. D Only substance craving
    💡 Explanation:

    ASD involves social communication impairment plus restricted or repetitive patterns.

  32. Q32 medium

    ADHD requires symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity-impulsivity that:

    1. A Only occur during intoxication
    2. B Always begin after age 40
    3. C Require hallucinations
    4. D Begin before age 12 and occur in more than one setting
    💡 Explanation:

    ADHD symptoms start in childhood and appear across settings.

  33. Q33 easy

    Intellectual disability is diagnosed using deficits in:

    1. A Intellectual functioning and adaptive functioning
    2. B Mood and appetite only
    3. C Vision and hearing only
    4. D Sleep and dreams only
    💡 Explanation:

    Diagnosis requires deficits in reasoning and everyday adaptive skills.

  34. Q34 medium

    Oppositional defiant disorder is mainly marked by:

    1. A Loss of reality testing
    2. B Angry, argumentative, and vindictive behavior
    3. C Severe memory impairment
    4. D Compulsive gambling only
    💡 Explanation:

    ODD involves angry mood, defiance, and vindictiveness toward authority figures.

  35. Q35 medium

    Conduct disorder involves a repetitive pattern of:

    1. A Fear of contamination
    2. B Delusional jealousy
    3. C Violating rights of others or major age-appropriate norms
    4. D Restricted food intake only
    💡 Explanation:

    Conduct disorder includes aggression, deceit, theft, or serious rule violations.

  36. Q36 medium

    Catatonia primarily refers to abnormalities of:

    1. A Appetite only
    2. B Motor behavior
    3. C Visual acuity
    4. D Blood pressure
    💡 Explanation:

    Catatonia involves motor signs such as stupor, rigidity, or posturing.

  37. Q37 medium

    Antisocial personality disorder requires a pattern of:

    1. A Excessive orderliness and perfectionism
    2. B Fear of abandonment with identity diffusion
    3. C Disregard for and violation of the rights of others
    4. D Detachment from social relationships only
    💡 Explanation:

    The disorder involves persistent violation of others rights and social norms.

  38. Q38 medium

    Borderline personality disorder is most associated with:

    1. A Grandiosity without mood swings
    2. B Lifelong absence of social interest
    3. C Delusions lasting one month
    4. D Instability in relationships, self-image, and affect
    💡 Explanation:

    Borderline personality disorder features instability and marked impulsivity.

  39. Q39 easy

    Narcissistic personality disorder is marked by:

    1. A Grandiosity, need for admiration, and reduced empathy
    2. B Compulsions to reduce anxiety
    3. C Persistent low mood for two weeks
    4. D Sudden neurological weakness
    💡 Explanation:

    Narcissistic traits include grandiosity, admiration seeking, and lack of empathy.

  40. Q40 medium

    Avoidant personality disorder is best described as:

    1. A Suspiciousness with odd beliefs
    2. B Social inhibition with feelings of inadequacy
    3. C Rule breaking for external gain
    4. D Unstable identity and self-harm
    💡 Explanation:

    Avoidant personality disorder combines social inhibition and hypersensitivity to criticism.

  41. Q41 medium

    Dependent personality disorder mainly involves:

    1. A Detached indifference to praise
    2. B Perfectionism that blocks task completion
    3. C Excessive need to be cared for with submissive behavior
    4. D Lack of remorse after aggression
    💡 Explanation:

    Dependent personality disorder features clinginess and difficulty making decisions alone.

  42. Q42 medium

    Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by:

    1. A Fear of germs and washing rituals
    2. B Alternating mania and depression
    3. C Binge eating and purging
    4. D Detachment from social relationships and restricted affect
    💡 Explanation:

    Schizoid personality disorder involves social detachment and limited emotional expression.

  43. Q43 easy

    Specific phobia is defined by:

    1. A Marked fear of a specific object or situation
    2. B Fear of all social judgment
    3. C Persistent hallucinations
    4. D Memory loss after trauma only
    💡 Explanation:

    Specific phobia focuses on a particular object or situation.

  44. Q44 medium

    Agoraphobia is most accurately described as fear of:

    1. A Being contaminated by germs
    2. B Places where escape may be difficult or help unavailable
    3. C Having multiple identities
    4. D Eating in front of others only
    💡 Explanation:

    Agoraphobia involves fear of situations where escape or help may be difficult.

  45. Q45 easy

    Social anxiety disorder primarily involves fear of:

    1. A Separation from a caregiver
    2. B Objects such as snakes only
    3. C Negative evaluation by others
    4. D Sudden memory decline
    💡 Explanation:

    The central fear is embarrassment, humiliation, or negative evaluation.

  46. Q46 medium

    Separation anxiety disorder is centered on:

    1. A Reduced need for sleep
    2. B Obsessions about symmetry
    3. C Intentional feigning of illness
    4. D Excessive fear about separation from attachment figures
    💡 Explanation:

    Separation anxiety involves developmentally inappropriate distress about separation.

  47. Q47 medium

    Illness anxiety disorder involves:

    1. A Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness
    2. B Low weight due to restriction
    3. C Fear of heights only
    4. D Identity fragmentation
    💡 Explanation:

    The main feature is health anxiety despite absent or mild symptoms.

  48. Q48 medium

    Conversion disorder involves:

    1. A Deliberate symptoms for legal benefit
    2. B Neurological symptoms incompatible with medical findings
    3. C Persistent grandiose beliefs
    4. D Binge eating followed by purging
    💡 Explanation:

    Functional neurological symptoms do not match recognized neurological disease.

  49. Q49 hard

    Factitious disorder differs from malingering because factitious disorder has:

    1. A Only accidental symptoms
    2. B Only substance-induced symptoms
    3. C No obvious external reward for symptom production
    4. D No intentional behavior
    💡 Explanation:

    Factitious symptoms are intentionally produced without clear external incentives.

  50. Q50 medium

    Malingering is best defined as:

    1. A Unconscious conversion of stress
    2. B Intrusive thoughts with rituals
    3. C Mood disorder with psychosis
    4. D Intentional production of symptoms for external incentives
    💡 Explanation:

    Malingering involves feigned symptoms motivated by external gain.