Research Methods, Statistics and Ethics in Psychology MCQs 2026

50 questions with detailed answers · 0 from past papers · 5 quiz batches available

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Page 1 of 1 Questions 110 of 50
  1. Q1 medium

    A precise definition of how a variable will be measured is an

    1. A Operational definition
    2. B Ethical code
    3. C Case history
    4. D Sampling frame
    💡 Explanation:

    Operational definitions specify the exact procedures used to measure or manipulate variables.

  2. Q2 easy

    A testable prediction about the relationship between variables is called a

    1. A Hypothesis
    2. B Theory
    3. C Norm
    4. D Sample
    💡 Explanation:

    A hypothesis is a specific, testable prediction derived from observation or theory.

  3. Q3 easy

    A broad explanation supported by evidence is called a scientific

    1. A Bias
    2. B Theory
    3. C Sample
    4. D Interview
    💡 Explanation:

    A scientific theory organizes evidence and explains a range of findings.

  4. Q4 easy

    The variable manipulated by the researcher in an experiment is the

    1. A Dependent variable
    2. B Confounding variable
    3. C Extraneous variable
    4. D Independent variable
    💡 Explanation:

    The independent variable is deliberately changed to observe its effect on another variable.

  5. Q5 easy

    The outcome measured in an experiment is the

    1. A Independent variable
    2. B Dependent variable
    3. C Control variable
    4. D Sampling variable
    💡 Explanation:

    The dependent variable is the measured outcome that may change because of the independent variable.

  6. Q6 medium

    Random assignment is used mainly to

    1. A Select a population
    2. B Increase demand characteristics
    3. C Replace measurement
    4. D Equalize groups before treatment
    💡 Explanation:

    Random assignment distributes participant differences across groups, helping make groups comparable.

  7. Q7 medium

    Random sampling is primarily used to improve

    1. A Test difficulty
    2. B Experimenter bias
    3. C Treatment intensity
    4. D Representativeness of the sample
    💡 Explanation:

    Random sampling gives members of a population a known chance of selection, improving representativeness.

  8. Q8 easy

    A group that does not receive the experimental treatment is the

    1. A Sample group
    2. B Pilot group
    3. C Control group
    4. D Biased group
    💡 Explanation:

    A control group provides a comparison for judging the effect of the experimental treatment.

  9. Q9 easy

    A placebo is best described as

    1. A A statistical average
    2. B A sampling error
    3. C A strong correlation
    4. D An inactive treatment
    💡 Explanation:

    A placebo resembles a treatment but has no active therapeutic ingredient.

  10. Q10 medium

    In a double-blind study, information about group assignment is withheld from

    1. A Only participants
    2. B Only statisticians
    3. C Participants and researchers interacting with them
    4. D Only the ethics committee
    💡 Explanation:

    Double-blind procedures reduce bias by keeping both participants and direct researchers unaware of treatment assignment.

  11. Q11 easy

    The method best suited for establishing cause and effect is the

    1. A Experiment
    2. B Survey
    3. C Case study
    4. D Naturalistic observation
    💡 Explanation:

    Experiments can establish causality because researchers manipulate variables and control conditions.

  12. Q12 medium

    A correlation coefficient of -0.80 indicates

    1. A No relationship
    2. B A weak positive relationship
    3. C A perfect relationship
    4. D A strong negative relationship
    💡 Explanation:

    The minus sign shows inverse direction and the magnitude .80 shows a strong relationship.

  13. Q13 easy

    A correlation coefficient can range from

    1. A -1.00 to +1.00
    2. B 0 to 10
    3. C -10 to +10
    4. D 1 to 100
    💡 Explanation:

    Pearson correlation coefficients range from -1.00 through 0 to +1.00.

  14. Q14 easy

    A positive correlation means that two variables tend to

    1. A Move in opposite directions
    2. B Increase or decrease together
    3. C Have no measurable link
    4. D Cause each other directly
    💡 Explanation:

    In a positive correlation, higher scores on one variable are associated with higher scores on the other.

  15. Q15 easy

    Correlation does not by itself prove

    1. A Association
    2. B Prediction
    3. C Causation
    4. D Covariation
    💡 Explanation:

    Correlation shows that variables are related, but it does not prove one causes the other.

  16. Q16 easy

    A case study is an intensive investigation of

    1. A One person, group or event
    2. B Only national census data
    3. C Only random samples
    4. D Only laboratory animals
    💡 Explanation:

    Case studies examine an individual, group or situation in depth, often using multiple sources of data.

  17. Q17 easy

    Observing behavior in its usual setting without interference is

    1. A Experimental manipulation
    2. B Naturalistic observation
    3. C Factor analysis
    4. D Random assignment
    💡 Explanation:

    Naturalistic observation records behavior in real-life settings without manipulating conditions.

  18. Q18 easy

    A survey is especially useful for studying

    1. A Rare brain lesions only
    2. B Laboratory reflexes only
    3. C Attitudes and self-reports from many people
    4. D Single-neuron firing only
    💡 Explanation:

    Surveys collect self-reported information, attitudes or opinions from relatively large groups.

  19. Q19 easy

    The group from which a sample is drawn is called the

    1. A Statistic
    2. B Population
    3. C Variable
    4. D Treatment
    💡 Explanation:

    A population is the larger group about which researchers want to draw conclusions.

  20. Q20 easy

    A sample is

    1. A A causal explanation
    2. B A measurement error
    3. C A research hypothesis
    4. D A subset of a population
    💡 Explanation:

    A sample is the smaller group of participants selected from the population for study.

  21. Q21 easy

    The arithmetic average of a set of scores is the

    1. A Mean
    2. B Median
    3. C Mode
    4. D Range
    💡 Explanation:

    The mean is calculated by adding all scores and dividing by the number of scores.

  22. Q22 easy

    The middle score in an ordered distribution is the

    1. A Mode
    2. B Mean
    3. C Variance
    4. D Median
    💡 Explanation:

    The median divides an ordered set of scores into two equal halves.

  23. Q23 easy

    The most frequently occurring score is the

    1. A Mean
    2. B Median
    3. C Range
    4. D Mode
    💡 Explanation:

    The mode is the score or category that occurs most often in a distribution.

  24. Q24 easy

    The range is calculated by subtracting the

    1. A Lowest score from highest score
    2. B Mean from median
    3. C Mode from mean
    4. D Sample from population
    💡 Explanation:

    Range is the simplest measure of spread and equals highest score minus lowest score.

  25. Q25 medium

    Standard deviation measures

    1. A Central tendency
    2. B Correlation direction
    3. C Sample size only
    4. D Spread of scores around the mean
    💡 Explanation:

    Standard deviation indicates how much scores typically vary around the mean.

  26. Q26 medium

    Inferential statistics are used to

    1. A Describe one score only
    2. B Name variables
    3. C Draw conclusions about populations from samples
    4. D Replace research ethics
    💡 Explanation:

    Inferential statistics help researchers estimate population patterns from sample data.

  27. Q27 easy

    Descriptive statistics are used to

    1. A Summarize and organize data
    2. B Guarantee causation
    3. C Eliminate all bias
    4. D Prove a theory permanently
    💡 Explanation:

    Descriptive statistics summarize data using measures such as mean, median, mode and standard deviation.

  28. Q28 hard

    A p-value is commonly used to judge

    1. A Statistical significance
    2. B Participant age only
    3. C Interview length
    4. D Population size only
    💡 Explanation:

    A p-value helps estimate how likely the observed result would be if the null hypothesis were true.

  29. Q29 medium

    A normal distribution is commonly described as

    1. A Flat and irregular
    2. B Bell-shaped and symmetrical
    3. C Always negatively skewed
    4. D Having no mean
    💡 Explanation:

    A normal distribution is symmetrical around the mean and has a bell-shaped curve.

  30. Q30 hard

    A z-score tells how many standard deviations a score is from the

    1. A Mean
    2. B Mode
    3. C Range
    4. D Sample size
    💡 Explanation:

    A z-score standardizes a raw score by showing its distance from the mean in standard deviation units.

  31. Q31 easy

    Reliability refers to the

    1. A Popularity of a test
    2. B Cost of a test
    3. C Length of a test
    4. D Consistency of measurement
    💡 Explanation:

    A reliable measure produces consistent results across time, items or raters.

  32. Q32 easy

    Validity refers to whether a test

    1. A Measures what it claims to measure
    2. B Is always short
    3. C Is easy to score only
    4. D Has many items
    💡 Explanation:

    Validity concerns the accuracy of interpretation: whether a measure assesses the intended construct.

  33. Q33 medium

    Test-retest reliability is assessed by

    1. A Comparing two different populations
    2. B Giving the same test twice
    3. C Changing all items
    4. D Removing the scoring key
    💡 Explanation:

    Test-retest reliability checks consistency of scores across two administrations of the same test.

  34. Q34 medium

    Inter-rater reliability is important when data depend on

    1. A Automatic machine scoring only
    2. B Random assignment only
    3. C Judgments by different observers
    4. D The number of pages
    💡 Explanation:

    Inter-rater reliability shows whether different observers or judges give consistent ratings.

  35. Q35 medium

    A confounding variable is a factor that

    1. A Improves ethics automatically
    2. B May influence results besides the independent variable
    3. C Is always the dependent variable
    4. D Has no relation to outcomes
    💡 Explanation:

    A confound provides an alternative explanation for an observed effect.

  36. Q36 hard

    Demand characteristics are cues that may lead participants to

    1. A Forget consent forms
    2. B Be randomly selected
    3. C Guess the study purpose and alter behavior
    4. D Lose all motivation
    💡 Explanation:

    Demand characteristics can bias results because participants may behave according to perceived expectations.

  37. Q37 medium

    In animal research, ethical guidelines emphasize

    1. A Humane treatment and scientific justification
    2. B No oversight at all
    3. C Maximum pain for accuracy
    4. D Avoiding all records
    💡 Explanation:

    Animal research must be scientifically justified and conducted with humane care and minimized suffering.

  38. Q38 medium

    A pilot study is conducted mainly to

    1. A Publish final results immediately
    2. B Avoid hypotheses
    3. C Test procedures before the main study
    4. D Replace all participants
    💡 Explanation:

    Pilot studies help detect practical problems in methods before the full research is conducted.

  39. Q39 medium

    A cross-sectional study compares

    1. A The same participants repeatedly
    2. B Only twins over time
    3. C Different age groups at one time
    4. D Only one clinical case
    💡 Explanation:

    Cross-sectional designs study different groups, often age groups, at the same point in time.

  40. Q40 medium

    A longitudinal study follows

    1. A One or more participants over time
    2. B Only one questionnaire item
    3. C Only a control group for one minute
    4. D Different samples on one day
    💡 Explanation:

    Longitudinal research tracks the same participants across time to study change or stability.

  41. Q41 hard

    Internal validity refers to the degree to which a study supports

    1. A Attractive formatting
    2. B Large page count
    3. C A causal conclusion within the study
    4. D A famous author name
    💡 Explanation:

    Internal validity concerns whether the design justifies concluding that the independent variable caused the outcome.

  42. Q42 medium

    Peer review is the process in which research is evaluated by

    1. A Only participants
    2. B Other qualified experts
    3. C Only politicians
    4. D Only advertisers
    💡 Explanation:

    Peer review asks experts in the field to evaluate methods, reasoning and evidence before publication.

  43. Q43 medium

    Experimenter bias occurs when researcher expectations

    1. A Influence the study outcome
    2. B Increase sample size only
    3. C Create a population
    4. D Eliminate variables
    💡 Explanation:

    Researcher expectations can unintentionally affect participants, observations or interpretation of results.

  44. Q44 easy

    Replication means

    1. A Changing every procedure
    2. B Repeating a study to check findings
    3. C Removing the control group
    4. D Selecting only one case
    💡 Explanation:

    Replication tests whether results can be found again using the same or similar procedures.

  45. Q45 easy

    Informed consent requires that participants

    1. A Never leave a study
    2. B Guess the hypothesis
    3. C Receive relevant information before agreeing
    4. D Avoid all questions
    💡 Explanation:

    Informed consent means participants are told essential information about the study before voluntarily agreeing.

  46. Q46 easy

    The right to withdraw means participants may

    1. A Change the published results
    2. B Leave the study without penalty
    3. C Select the hypothesis
    4. D Demand higher scores
    💡 Explanation:

    Ethical research allows participants to stop taking part without punishment or loss of entitled benefits.

  47. Q47 easy

    Debriefing is usually done

    1. A Before recruitment only
    2. B Instead of consent
    3. C After participation to explain the study
    4. D Only during sampling
    💡 Explanation:

    Debriefing explains the purpose, procedures and any deception after participation.

  48. Q48 easy

    Confidentiality in research means participant information should be

    1. A Published with full names
    2. B Protected from unauthorized disclosure
    3. C Shared with all students
    4. D Used without consent
    💡 Explanation:

    Confidentiality protects private participant data from improper access or disclosure.

  49. Q49 hard

    Deception in psychological research is ethically acceptable only when it is

    1. A Used for convenience only
    2. B Never explained later
    3. C Used to increase fear
    4. D Justified and followed by debriefing
    💡 Explanation:

    Deception must be necessary, not harmful beyond limits, and explained through debriefing afterward.

  50. Q50 medium

    The ethical principle of beneficence requires researchers to

    1. A Ignore risks
    2. B Collect names publicly
    3. C Avoid statistics
    4. D Maximize benefits and minimize harm
    💡 Explanation:

    Beneficence requires attention to participant welfare by reducing harm and increasing possible benefits.