Industrial/Organizational Psychology and HRM MCQs 2026

50 questions with detailed answers · 0 from past papers · 5 quiz batches available

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Page 1 of 1 Questions 110 of 50
  1. Q1 easy

    The selection ratio is calculated as what?

    1. A Interviewers divided by applicants
    2. B Number hired divided by number of applicants
    3. C Applicants divided by total population
    4. D Test validity divided by reliability
    💡 Explanation:

    Selection ratio expresses how many applicants are selected from the applicant pool.

  2. Q2 easy

    In job analysis, a task-oriented method primarily identifies what?

    1. A Observable duties performed on the job
    2. B General personality traits of workers
    3. C Salary grades across departments
    4. D Organizational culture symbols
    💡 Explanation:

    Task-oriented job analysis lists work activities rather than broad worker traits.

  3. Q3 medium

    Criterion-related validity of a selection test is most directly shown by what?

    1. A A correlation between test scores and later job performance
    2. B Agreement between interviewers about candidate appearance
    3. C The number of items included in the test booklet
    4. D The popularity of the test among applicants
    💡 Explanation:

    Criterion-related validity links predictor scores with a relevant performance criterion.

  4. Q4 medium

    The critical incident technique is used to collect which type of job information?

    1. A Employee demographic summaries
    2. B Examples of especially effective and ineffective work behavior
    3. C Average salaries in competing organizations
    4. D Legal definitions of employee benefits
    💡 Explanation:

    Critical incidents are concrete behaviors that distinguish good from poor performance.

  5. Q5 easy

    A structured employment interview improves reliability mainly by using what?

    1. A Different questions tailored entirely to each applicant
    2. B A single interviewer with no scoring guide
    3. C Standard job-related questions and anchored rating scales
    4. D Only informal conversation with each applicant
    💡 Explanation:

    Structure reduces interviewer discretion and makes ratings more comparable.

  6. Q6 medium

    Under the four-fifths rule, adverse impact is suggested when a group selection rate is below what level?

    1. A 80 percent of the highest group selection rate
    2. B 50 percent of the total applicant pool
    3. C 25 percent of the supervisor approval rate
    4. D 100 percent of the previous year's hiring rate
    💡 Explanation:

    The four-fifths rule flags selection rates below 80 percent of the highest rate.

  7. Q7 easy

    Person-organization fit refers mainly to compatibility between a person and what?

    1. A The organization's values, norms, and culture
    2. B The physical office layout
    3. C The exact wording of the job advertisement
    4. D The payroll processing cycle
    💡 Explanation:

    P-O fit concerns value and cultural congruence between employee and organization.

  8. Q8 easy

    In Herzberg's two-factor theory, which item is a motivator rather than a hygiene factor?

    1. A Working conditions
    2. B Recognition for achievement
    3. C Company policy
    4. D Basic salary administration
    💡 Explanation:

    Recognition is intrinsic to the work and is classified as a motivator.

  9. Q9 easy

    Halo error in performance appraisal occurs when a rater does what?

    1. A Rates all employees near the midpoint
    2. B Compares employees against clear standards
    3. C Lets one general impression influence several ratings
    4. D Uses only objective production data
    💡 Explanation:

    Halo error spreads an overall impression across distinct performance dimensions.

  10. Q10 medium

    An assessment center most commonly evaluates candidates through which method?

    1. A Multiple job simulations such as in-basket tasks and role plays
    2. B A single unscored personality essay
    3. C A medical fitness certificate only
    4. D Random allocation to work groups
    💡 Explanation:

    Assessment centers use multiple simulations and assessors to sample managerial behavior.

  11. Q11 medium

    Utility analysis in personnel selection estimates what?

    1. A The economic value gained from using a selection procedure
    2. B The applicant's preferred benefit package
    3. C The number of vacancies announced by HR
    4. D The average age of new employees
    💡 Explanation:

    Utility analysis translates selection validity and costs into expected organizational value.

  12. Q12 easy

    Affective organizational commitment means an employee remains mainly because of what?

    1. A Lack of alternative employment
    2. B Emotional attachment to the organization
    3. C Fear of formal punishment
    4. D A temporary payroll error
    💡 Explanation:

    Affective commitment is based on identification, involvement, and emotional attachment.

  13. Q13 easy

    Job enrichment is designed to increase which feature of work?

    1. A Administrative paperwork unrelated to the job
    2. B Dependence on external rewards only
    3. C Autonomy, responsibility, and meaningfulness
    4. D Routine supervision and narrow task repetition
    💡 Explanation:

    Job enrichment adds depth to work through responsibility and intrinsic motivation.

  14. Q14 medium

    Behaviorally anchored rating scales are distinctive because they combine ratings with what?

    1. A Concrete behavioral examples at scale points
    2. B Unrelated personality labels
    3. C Only attendance records
    4. D Secret supervisor rankings
    💡 Explanation:

    BARS uses critical incidents as behavioral anchors for numerical ratings.

  15. Q15 medium

    Criterion contamination occurs when a performance measure includes what?

    1. A Factors unrelated to true job performance
    2. B All important elements of the job
    3. C Only validated work samples
    4. D A representative job analysis
    💡 Explanation:

    Contamination adds irrelevant influences to the criterion measure.

  16. Q16 medium

    Criterion deficiency means a performance measure does what?

    1. A Measures no outcomes at all
    2. B Fails to capture important parts of job performance
    3. C Includes too many irrelevant personality traits
    4. D Always overpredicts performance
    💡 Explanation:

    A deficient criterion omits relevant aspects of the performance domain.

  17. Q17 easy

    In the job characteristics model, autonomy refers to what?

    1. A Task identity alone
    2. B Skill variety in training only
    3. C Freedom and discretion in scheduling and doing work
    4. D Feedback from supervisors only
    💡 Explanation:

    Autonomy is the degree of control over work methods and timing.

  18. Q18 easy

    Maslow's theory suggests that when lower-level needs are unmet, they tend to be what?

    1. A More salient motivators than higher-level needs
    2. B Irrelevant to workplace behavior
    3. C Automatically satisfied by praise
    4. D Replaced by job analysis methods
    💡 Explanation:

    Maslow proposed that unsatisfied lower needs generally command priority.

  19. Q19 medium

    Leader-member exchange theory focuses on the quality of what?

    1. A Dyadic relationships between leader and follower
    2. B Formal job descriptions
    3. C Written salary contracts only
    4. D National labor statistics
    💡 Explanation:

    LMX emphasizes leader-follower exchange relationships that vary within a team.

  20. Q20 medium

    Mentoring in organizations typically provides career support and what else?

    1. A Mandatory legal arbitration
    2. B Payroll deductions for training
    3. C Psychosocial support such as encouragement and role modeling
    4. D Randomized selection without feedback
    💡 Explanation:

    Mentors commonly provide both career development and psychosocial functions.

  21. Q21 medium

    General cognitive ability tests are valued in selection because they often show what?

    1. A Strong prediction of performance across many jobs
    2. B No relationship with training success
    3. C Only physical endurance assessment
    4. D Perfect freedom from adverse impact concerns
    💡 Explanation:

    Cognitive ability is among the strongest general predictors of job and training performance.

  22. Q22 easy

    Compared with structured interviews, unstructured interviews usually have what?

    1. A Lower reliability and weaker validity
    2. B Higher standardization and scoring consistency
    3. C No interviewer judgment at all
    4. D Identical legal defensibility in every case
    💡 Explanation:

    Unstructured interviews allow variable questions and subjective scoring, reducing consistency.

  23. Q23 easy

    Procedural justice refers to fairness of what?

    1. A Only the employee's work output
    2. B Processes used to make decisions
    3. C Only the final pay amount
    4. D The building's location
    💡 Explanation:

    Procedural justice concerns whether decision rules and procedures are fair.

  24. Q24 easy

    Work engagement is commonly described by vigor, dedication, and what?

    1. A Emotional suppression
    2. B Selection ratio
    3. C Absorption
    4. D Role ambiguity
    💡 Explanation:

    Engagement includes high energy, involvement, and being absorbed in work.

  25. Q25 easy

    Training needs analysis is typically conducted at which levels?

    1. A Organization, task, and person
    2. B Weather, transport, and housing
    3. C Payroll, tax, and pension only
    4. D Family, school, and neighborhood
    💡 Explanation:

    Needs analysis identifies gaps at organizational, task, and individual levels.

  26. Q26 easy

    Role ambiguity exists when an employee lacks what?

    1. A Clear expectations about duties and responsibilities
    2. B Any coworkers in the organization
    3. C Access to a salary account
    4. D A formal job title only
    💡 Explanation:

    Ambiguity means uncertainty about what is expected in the role.

  27. Q27 easy

    Criterion-related validity evidence connects a predictor with what?

    1. A Applicant preferences about location
    2. B A relevant outcome criterion such as job performance
    3. C Office attendance policy only
    4. D The number of HR staff
    💡 Explanation:

    This validity evidence shows that predictor scores relate to important criteria.

  28. Q28 medium

    Management by objectives usually involves what?

    1. A Random assignment of bonuses
    2. B Ignoring performance feedback
    3. C Jointly set measurable goals and review of results
    4. D Trait ratings with no goals
    💡 Explanation:

    MBO aligns work through agreed objectives and periodic performance review.

  29. Q29 easy

    Human factors or ergonomics aims primarily to do what?

    1. A Fit work systems, tools, and environments to people
    2. B Replace all psychological assessment with intuition
    3. C Measure only wage inflation
    4. D Remove all job performance standards
    💡 Explanation:

    Ergonomics designs work to match human capabilities and limitations.

  30. Q30 medium

    Diversity climate refers to employees' perceptions that the workplace does what?

    1. A Values inclusion and treats demographic groups fairly
    2. B Uses only one recruitment source forever
    3. C Eliminates all performance appraisal
    4. D Avoids formal HR policies
    💡 Explanation:

    Diversity climate reflects perceived support for inclusion and equal treatment.

  31. Q31 easy

    360-degree feedback gathers performance information from whom?

    1. A Multiple sources such as supervisors, peers, subordinates, and self
    2. B Only customers who complain
    3. C Only the payroll department
    4. D One anonymous stranger outside the organization
    💡 Explanation:

    The method combines ratings from several relevant perspectives.

  32. Q32 medium

    A competency model describes what?

    1. A Capabilities linked to effective or superior job performance
    2. B Only the organization's tax status
    3. C A random list of interview questions
    4. D The color scheme of HR forms
    💡 Explanation:

    Competency models define behaviors and attributes associated with success.

  33. Q33 easy

    Equity theory proposes that employees compare what with others?

    1. A Office furniture quality
    2. B The number of holidays in a year
    3. C Their input-outcome ratio
    4. D Only personality profiles
    💡 Explanation:

    Equity judgments are based on comparative ratios of contributions and rewards.

  34. Q34 medium

    Organizational climate is best defined as shared perceptions of what?

    1. A Individual childhood experiences
    2. B Policies, practices, and procedures in the organization
    3. C National economic growth rates
    4. D Formal court judgments only
    💡 Explanation:

    Climate reflects employees' shared views of how the organization functions.

  35. Q35 easy

    Work sample tests usually have strong content validity because they do what?

    1. A Closely mirror tasks performed on the job
    2. B Avoid measuring job tasks
    3. C Measure only general attitudes
    4. D Depend on chance guessing
    💡 Explanation:

    Work samples directly represent important job behaviors.

  36. Q36 easy

    In job specifications, KSAOs stands for what?

    1. A Knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics
    2. B Key salary and accounting outputs
    3. C Known safety audit observations
    4. D Kinetic standards and office assignments
    💡 Explanation:

    KSAOs summarize worker attributes required for job performance.

  37. Q37 medium

    A situational interview differs from a behavior description interview because it focuses on what?

    1. A Medical history unrelated to work
    2. B Random personal preferences
    3. C Hypothetical future responses to job situations
    4. D Only past actions in previous jobs
    💡 Explanation:

    Situational interviews ask what the applicant would do in job-relevant scenarios.

  38. Q38 easy

    Leniency error in appraisal means a rater tends to do what?

    1. A Use only peer rankings
    2. B Give unduly high ratings to many employees
    3. C Rate employees too harshly
    4. D Ignore all positive behavior
    💡 Explanation:

    Leniency is the tendency to assign ratings that are too favorable.

  39. Q39 medium

    Empirically keyed biodata is based on which information?

    1. A Past experiences statistically linked to later performance
    2. B Supervisor intuition alone
    3. C Random hobbies selected by applicants
    4. D Unverified rumors about candidates
    💡 Explanation:

    Biodata items are often scored by their empirical association with criteria.

  40. Q40 easy

    Cronbach's alpha is most often used as an estimate of what?

    1. A Internal consistency reliability
    2. B Applicant withdrawal rate
    3. C Criterion contamination
    4. D External labor demand
    💡 Explanation:

    Alpha estimates the consistency among items measuring a construct.

  41. Q41 medium

    Job crafting occurs when employees proactively change what?

    1. A The organization's founding date
    2. B The validity coefficient of a test
    3. C Their tasks, relationships, or perceptions of work
    4. D Only statutory labor law
    💡 Explanation:

    Job crafting involves self-initiated changes to task, relational, or cognitive boundaries.

  42. Q42 medium

    The classic dimensions of burnout include emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and what?

    1. A Increased job enrichment
    2. B Reduced personal accomplishment
    3. C Elevated spatial reasoning
    4. D Improved sleep quality
    💡 Explanation:

    Burnout is commonly defined by exhaustion, cynicism/depersonalization, and reduced efficacy.

  43. Q43 medium

    A situational judgment test usually asks applicants to do what?

    1. A Choose effective responses to realistic work scenarios
    2. B Memorize the company policy manual
    3. C Report only their family background
    4. D Complete a purely physical endurance task
    💡 Explanation:

    SJTs present job-related situations and score judgment about appropriate responses.

  44. Q44 easy

    Transactional leadership is characterized mainly by what?

    1. A Avoidance of performance standards
    2. B Contingent rewards and management by exception
    3. C Unconditional employee autonomy
    4. D A focus only on personal friendships
    💡 Explanation:

    Transactional leaders exchange rewards for performance and monitor deviations.

  45. Q45 medium

    A psychological contract is best described as what?

    1. A A clinical diagnosis made at work
    2. B A formal payroll classification
    3. C Perceived unwritten obligations between employee and employer
    4. D A legally notarized appointment letter
    💡 Explanation:

    Psychological contracts are subjective beliefs about reciprocal obligations.

  46. Q46 hard

    Validity generalization argues that a predictor can show what across settings?

    1. A Consistent validity for similar jobs and criteria
    2. B No relationship with performance in any setting
    3. C Only face validity in one organization
    4. D Validity without any statistical evidence
    💡 Explanation:

    Validity generalization examines whether predictor validity extends across comparable contexts.

  47. Q47 easy

    A realistic job preview can reduce turnover because it does what?

    1. A Gives accurate positive and negative information before entry
    2. B Promises rapid promotion to all applicants
    3. C Hides stressful aspects of the job
    4. D Eliminates the need for selection testing
    💡 Explanation:

    Accurate previews align expectations with actual job demands.

  48. Q48 medium

    Training transfer is most likely when training includes identical elements and what else?

    1. A Supervisor support for applying learned skills
    2. B No opportunity to use the skill
    3. C Only abstract lectures without practice
    4. D Delayed feedback after several years
    💡 Explanation:

    Transfer improves when trainees practice relevant elements and receive workplace support.

  49. Q49 easy

    Organizational citizenship behavior refers to what?

    1. A Absence from work without permission
    2. B Discretionary helping beyond formal job requirements
    3. C Mandatory duties written in the contract
    4. D Strict compliance with minimum output only
    💡 Explanation:

    OCB includes voluntary helpful acts that support the social organization.

  50. Q50 easy

    Distributive justice concerns perceived fairness of what?

    1. A The politeness of the supervisor only
    2. B The office seating arrangement only
    3. C Outcomes such as pay, rewards, or promotions
    4. D The decision-making procedure only
    💡 Explanation:

    Distributive justice is about fairness of allocated outcomes.